30 Sept 2015

BIS Mechanical Mock Test Question Papers 2015 with Keys

bis mechanical question papers free downloads

Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is National standard body of India, which is Govt. of India owned organization under the administrative control of ministry of Consumer affairs, Food and public Distributions. The main activates of BIS are Standardization, Product and System Certifications, Hallmarking of Gold/Silver Jewellery, Laboratory testing and certifications at international level etc. This post contains the BIS mechanical mock test question papers 2015 and free downloads its answerkey.

Before going to BIS Mechanical Mock test question papers 2015, you should know about the BIS examination questions pattern. The BIS online exam contains 200 objective questions and you need to complete within 120 minutes (2 hours). All objective questions carry one marks. The questions are divided in 4 parts of 50 questions such as Technical Knowledge of concerned discipline, Quantitative aptitude, Reasoning and English language. There is negative marks penalty for wrong answers.  The BIS mechanical mock test question paper 2015 is follows the same pattern of BIS previous year question papers.

This is BIS Mock test paper 2015 and you should try to answer it.

Answerkeys are published soon!

BIS Mechanical Mock Test Question Papers 2015

PART A


Directions: In questions 1 to 5, groups of four words are given.  In each group one word is correctly spelt word.


1. (A) silhouete

(B) muncipality

(C) millennium

(D) inaguration

Answer: C

2. (A) kaledoscope

(B) Appolo

(C) condecent

(D) conscience

Answer: B

3. (A) conveyence

(B) audiance

(C) cucummber

(D) curriculum

Answer: D

4. (A) certainity

(B) haemoglobin

(C) helenism

(D) halucination

Answer: D

5. (A) hierarchy

(B) hemorrage

(C) pediatrician

(D) pulmonary

Answer: A

Directions: In the following passage (6 to 15) some of the words have been left out. First read passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.

The martyrs who ..(6).. down their lives for freedom of the country had a ...(7).. vision of the future. They wanted the nation to be free from all the slavery and ..(8)… They wanted an India in which all the communities would live in ..(9).. harmony and in which there would be no high class and no low class of people, the ..(10).. of untouchability having been wiped out completely. Women would enjoy equal rights with men and ..(11).. their fullest to the making of a great nation. Such a vision was in ..(12).. with the ancient glory of the country renowned for its splendid achievements in literature, art and culture . We must now..(13).. this ancient culture of ours with tolerance as its masthead. If we forget or cease to take pride in our noble heritage, we shall have to face severe..(14).. in the court of history which is ruthless judge and seldom ..(15).. the erring people.

6. (A) put

(B) set

(C) laid

(D) paid

Answer: C

7. (A) lofty

(B) bleak

(C) myopic

(D) full

Answer: A

8. (A) bound

(B) bondage

(C) yoke

(D) intolerance

Answer: B

9. (A) decent

(B) quiet

(C) quite

(D) perfect

Answer: D

10. (A) course

(B) dirt

(C) curse

(D) means

Answer: C

11. (A) compromise

(B) contrive

(C) contribute

(D) commit

Answer: C

12. (A) keeping

(B) doing

(C) pursuing

(D) developing

Answer: A

13. (A) rediscover

(B) revitalize

(C) replenish

(D) reinvent

Answer: B

14. (A) punishment

(B) censure

(C) beating

(D) indictment

Answer: D

15. (A) saves

(B) spares

(C) praises

(D) likes

Answer: B

Directions: In question Nos. 16 to 20, some words of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and choose appropriate letter (A), (B) or (C). Choose letter (D) if the sentence is free from errors.

16. I rose the child (A) /, which had fallen, off the ground (B)/ and consoled it (C).

Answer: A

17. Tell me (A)/ when you usually (B)/ go shopping (C).

Answer: C

18. How many (A)/ children do (B)/ Annie have?(C).

Answer: B

19. Please close the door (A)/ as quiet as (B)/ you can (C).

Answer: B

20. Can you recall back the time (A)/ when we stayed (B)/ ath the hostel? (C).

Answer: A

Directions: In question Nos 21 to 25, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word from the suggestions.

21. Ordered over a month ago, the books are …… to arrive any day now.

(A) anticipated

(B) hoped

(C) expected

(D) wished

Answer: C

22. I have told him that he had better ….. his dog always tied to the stake.

(A) keep

(B) kept

(C) keeping

(D) to keep

Answer: A

23. The beach would be an ideal place for visitors if …… not so crowded.

(A) it was

(B) it were

(C) it had

(D) it is

Answer: B

24.  Hadn’t the witness turned …….., she would have won the case.

(A) hospitable

(B) host

(C) hostile

(D) hosted

Answer: C

25. He is commited to ……. Us in times of need.

(A) help

(B) have helped

(C) helpful

(D) helping

Answer: D

Directions: In question Nos. 26 to 30, out of four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

26. Fragile

(A) Weak

(B) bright

(C) thin

(D) resistant

Answer: A

27. Dainty

(A) clumpsy

(B) strong

(C) rough

(D) elegant

Answer: D

28. Genial

(A) dismal

(B) pleasant

(C) affluent

(D) genuine

Answer: B

29. Inevitable

(A) probable

(B) liable

(C) unavoidable

(D) formidable

Answer: C

30. Placid

(A) dull

(B) calm

(C) interesting

(D) clear

Answer: B



Directions: In question Nos. 31 to 35, out of four alternatives, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

31. Fictious

(A) real

(B) imaginative

(C) fancy

(D) foreign

Answer: A

32. Accelerate

(A) check

(B) control

(C) slacken

(D) expedite

Answer: C

33. Authentic

(A) old

(B) fake

(C) new

(D) genuine

Answer: B

34. Feasibility

(A) unsuitability

(B) Impropriety

(C) cheapness

(D) impracticability

Answer: D

35. Delectable

(A) nice

(B)  tasty

(C) unsavoury

(D) heavy

Answer: C



Directions: Choose the alternative which best express the meaning of the  idiom/ phrase.

36. A tall story

(A) an unbelievable story

(B) an indecent story

(C) a fine story

(D) an exhaustive narration

 Answer: A

37. A white elephant

(A) a thing of beauty

(B) an expensive, useless object

(C) a decorative piece

(D) a wild animal

Answer: B

38. To cry wolf

(A) to cry in vain

(B) to shout at a high pitch

(C) to waste time

(D) to call for help unnecessarily

Answer: D

39. To kiss the dust

(A) to be humble

(B) to beat aperson

(C) to suffer utter defeat

(D) to pray

Answer: C

40. To burry the hatchet

(A) to end hostilities

(B) to miss one’s tools

(C) to wound a person

(D) to do away with someone

Answer: A



Directions: In Questions Nos 41 to 45, a sentence is given, which/ a part of which may need improvement. Choose the correct improvement from the options.

41. But for you help, I would not finish the work in time.

(A) But for you help, I will not finish the work in time.

(B) But for you help, I would not have finished the work in time.

(C) But for you help, I could not finish the work in time.

(D) No improvement

Answer: B

42. He is a man with whom I find it difficult to associate with.

(A) He is a man with who I find it difficult to associate with.

(B) He is a man with whom I find difficulty in associating with.

(C) He is a man who I find it difficult to associate with.

(D) No improvement

Answer: C

43. He both lost his money and his passport.

(A) He lost both his money and his passport.

(B) He lost his money and his passport both.

(C) He lost his both money and his passport.

(D) No improvement

Answer:  A

44. These farms are in danger to be taken over by the railways.

(A) These farms are in danger of taken over by the railways.

(B) These farms are in danger to being taken over by the railways.

(C) These farms are in danger to be taken by the railways.

(D) No improvement

Answer: B

45. Gandhiji insisted on our wearing khadi clothes.

(A) Gandhiji insisted our wearing khadi clothes.

(B) Gandhiji insisted to our wearing khadi clothes.

(C) Gandhiji insisted us to wear khadi clothes.

(D) No improvement

Answer: D

Directions: In question Nos 46 to 50, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word or sentence.

46. The animals of a certain region

(A) flora

(B) fauna

(C) wild life

(D) forest

Answer: B

47. One who pretends to be what he is not

(A) cynic

(B) snob

(C) hypocrite

(D) dictator

Answer: C

48. One who doubts whether God exists

(A) theist

(B) atheist

(C) apostate

(D) agonistic

Answer:D

49. The science of the study of the old age

(A) geriatrics

(B) gerontology

(C) gastroenteritis

(D) ornithology

Answer: 

50. A writer who steals ideas from another writer or work

(A) hack writer

(B) anonymous

(C) plagiarist

(D) copywriter

Answer: C


PART B


51. Three different containers contain 496 litres, 403 litres and 713 litres of mixtures of milk and water respectively. What biggest measure can measure all the different quantities exactly?

(A) 1 litre

(B) 7 litres

(C) 31 litres

(D) 41 litres

Answer: C

52. 4.036 .04 = ?

(A) 1.009                     (B) 10.09                     (C) 100.9                                 (D) 1009

(A) 1.009

(B) 10.09

(C) 100.9

(D) 1009

Answer: C

53. If a*b = 2a- 3b + ab, then 3*5 +5*3 is equal to

(A) 22

(B) 24

(C) 26

(D) 28

Answer: A

54. A total of 324 coins of 20 paise and 25 paise make a sum of Rs.71. The number of 25 paise coins is:

(A) 120

(B) 124

(C) 144

(D) 200

Answer: B

55. If x = and y = , then the value of (x2+y2) is :

(A) 10

(B) 13

(C) 14

(D) 15

Answer: C

56. A cricketer has a certain average for 10 innings. In the eleventh inning, he scored 108 runs, thereby increasing his average by 6 runs. His new average is:

(A) 48

(B) 52

(C) 55

(D) 60

Answer: A

57. The sum of two numbers is 25 and their difference is 13. Find their product.

(A) 104

(B) 114

(C) 315

(D) 325

Answer: B

58. A is two years older than B who is twice as old as C. If the totalof the ages of A,B and C be 27, then how old is B?

(A) 7

(B) 8

(C) 9

(D) 10

Answer: D

59. If 5a = 3125, then the value of 5(a-3) is:

(A) 25

(B) 125

(C) 625

(D) 1625

Answer: A

60. A scored 30% marks and failed by 15 marks. B scored 40% marks and obtain 35 marks more than those required to pass. The pass percentage is:

(A) 33%

(B) 38%

(C) 43%

(D) 46%

Answer: A

61. By selling 12 toffees for a rupee, a man losses 20%. How many for a rupee should he sell to get a gain of 20% ?

(A) 5

(B) 8

(C) 10

(D) 15

Answer: B

62. The ratio of three numbers is 3:4:5 and the sum of their squares is 1250. The sum of the numbers is:

(A) 30

(B) 50

(C) 60

(D) 90

Answer: C

63. A and B started a business with initial investments in the ratio 14 : 15 and their annual profits were in the ratio 7:6. If A invested the money for 10 months, for how many months did B invest his money?

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 8

(D) 9

Answer: C

64. In a camp there is a meal for 120 men or 200 children. If 150 children have taken the meal, how many men eill be catered to with the remaining meal?

(A) 20

(B) 30

(C) 40

(D) 50

Answer: B

65. A and B can do a work in 8 days, B and C can do the same work in 12 days. A, B and C together can finish it in 6 days. A and C together will do it in:

(A) 4 days

(B) 6 days

(C) 8 days

(D) 12 days

Answer: C

66. 12 buckets of water fill a tank when the capacity of each tank is 13.5 litres. How many buckets will be needed to fill the same tank, if the capacity of each bucket is 9 litres ?

(A) 8

(B) 15

(C) 16

(D) 18

Answer: D

67. A is faster than B. A and B each walk 24 km. The sum of their speeds is 7 kmph and the sum of times taken by them is 14 hours. Then A’s speed in kmph is equal to:

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(C) 7

Answer: B

68. A train crosses a platform 100 m long in 60 seconds at a speed of 45 kmph. The time taken by the train to cross an electric pole is :

(A) 8 seconds

(B) 52 seconds

(C) 1 minute

(D) 1.5 minutes

Answer: B

69. 8 litres are drawn from a cask full of wine and is then filled with water. This operation is performed three more times. The ratio of the quantity of wine now left in cask to that of the water is 16:65. How much wine in litres did the cask hold originally?

(A) 18

(B) 24

(C) 32

(D) 42

Answer: B

70. A motor boat, whose speed is 15 kmph in still water goes 30 km downstream and comes back in a total of 4 hours 30 minutes. The speed of the stream in kmph is

(A) 4

(B) 5

(C) 6

(D) 10

Answer: B

71. Divide Rs. 2379 into 3 parts so that their amounts after 2,3 and 4 years respectively may be equal, the rate of interest being 5% per annum at simple interest. The first part is:

(A) Rs. 759

(B) Rs. 600

(C) Rs. 818

(D) Rs. 828

Answer: C

72. The effective annual rate of interest corresponding to a nominal rate of 6% per annum payable half yearly is

(A) 6.06%

(B) 6.07%

(C) 6.08%

(D) 6.09%

Answer: D

73. An error of 2% in excess is made while measuring the side of a square. The percentage of error in the calculated area of the square is

(A) 2%

(B) 2.02%

(C) 4%

(D) 4.04%

Answer: D

74. The perimeter of a rhombus is 56 m and its height is 5 m. its area in sq.m is :

(A) 64

(B) 70

(C) 78

(D) 84

Answer: B

75. The volume of largest right circular cone that can be cut out of a cube of edge 7 cm is:

(A) 13.6 cm3

(B) 89.8 cm3

(C) 121 cm3

(D) 147.68 cm3

Answer: B

76. The calendar for the 2007 will be the same for the year:

(A) 2014

(B) 2016

(C) 2017

(D) 2018

Answer: D

77. At 3.40, the hour hand and the minute hand of the clock form an angle of:

(A) 1200

(B) 1250

(C) 1300

(D) 1350

Answer: C

78. A man invested Rs. 1552 in a stock at 97 to obtain an income of Rs. 128. The dividend from the stock is:

(A) 7.5%

(B) 8%

(C) 9.7%

(D) none of these

Answer: B

79. In how many ways can a group of 5 men and 2 women e made out of a total of 7 men and 3 women ?

(A) 63

(B) 90

(C) 126

(D) 45

Answer: A

80. A speaks truth in 75% cases and B in 80% of the cases. In what percentage of cases are they likely contradict each other, narrating the same incident ?

(A) 5%

(B) 15%

(C) 35%

(D) 45%

Answer: C

81. The present worth of Rs. 1404 due in two equal half – yearly instalments at 8 % per annum simple interest is:

(A) Rs. 1325

(B) Rs.1300

(C) Rs. 1350

(D) Rs. 1500

Answer: A

82. The banker’s gain on a sum due 3 years hence at 12% per annum is Rs.270. The banker’s discount is:

(A) Rs. 960

(B) Rs. 840

(C) Rs. 1020

(D) Rs. 760

Answer: C

83. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a certain point is 300. If the observer moves 20 m towards the tower, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower increases by 150. The height of the tower is:

(A) 17.3 m

(B) 21.9 m

(C) 27.3 m

(D) 30 m

Answer: C

84. A dairyman pays Rs. 6.40 per litre of milk. He adds water and sells the mixture at Rs. 8 per litre, thereby making 37.5% profit. The proportion of water to milk received by the customers is :

(A) 1:10

(B) 1:12

(C) 1:15

(D) 1: 20

Answer: A

85. The least number of complete years in which a sum of money put out at 20% compound interest will be more than doubled is:

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 6

Answer: B

86. If log x 4=0.4, then the value of x is :

(A) 1

(B) 4

(C) 16

(D) 32

Answer: D

87. The cost of carpeting a room 18 m long with a carpet 75 cm wide at Rs. 4.50 per metre is Rs.810. The breadth of the room is:

(A) 7m

(B) 7.5m

(C) 8m

(D) 8.5m

Answer: B

88. If 35% of a number is 12 less than 50% of that number, then the number is:

(A) 40

(B) 50

(C) 60

(D) 80

Answer: D

89. 5 men and 2 boys working together can do four times as much work as a main and a boy. Working capacities of a woman and a boy are in the ratio:

(A) 1:2

(B) 2:1

(C) 1:3

(D) 3:1

Answer: B

90. In an examination, 34% of the students failed in Mathematics and 42% failed in English. If 20% of the students failed in both the subjects, then the percentage of students who passed in both the subjects was:

(A) 44

(B) 50

(C) 54

(D) 56

Answer: A



Directions(Questions 91 to 95): Study the following table and answer the following questions


EXPENDITURES OF A COMPANY (IN LAKH RUPEES)

PER ANNUM OVER THE GIVEN YEARS


Item of Expenditure
\

Year
SalaryFuel and TransportBonusInterest on LoansTaxes
1998288983.0023.483
19993421122.5232.5108
20003241013.8441.674
20013361333.6836.488
20024201423.9649.498

91. The ratio between the total expenditure on Taxes for all the years and the total expenditure on Fuel and Transport for all the years respectively is approximately:

(A) 4:7

(B) 10:13

(C) 15:18

(D) 5:8

Answer: B



92. The total expenditure of the Company over these items during the year 2000 in Rs. is :

(A) 32.43 lakhs

(B) 33.72 lakhs

(C) 34.18 lakhs

(D) 35.69 lakhs

Answer: A

93. What is the average amount of interest per year which the company had to pay in Rs. during this period?

(A) 32.43 lakhs

(B) 33.72 lakhs

(C) 34.18 lakhs

(D) 36.66 lakhs

Answer: D

94. Total expenditure on all these items in 1998 was approximately what percent of the total expenditure in 2002?

(A) 62%

(B) 66%

(C) 69%

(D) 71%

Answer: C

95. The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period is approximately what percent of the total amount of salary paid during this period?

(A) 0.1%

(B) 0.5%

(C) 1%

(D) 1.25%

Answer: C

96. Two cones have their heights in the ratio of 1:3 and radii 3:1. The ratio of their volumes is:

(A) 1:1

(B) 1:3

(C) 3:1

(D) 2:3

Answer: C

97. 36 men can complete a piece of work in 18 days, In how many days will 27 men complete the same work?

(A) 12

(B) 18

(C) 22

(D) 24

Answer: D

98. p is six times as large as q. The percent that q is less than p, is:

(A) 16

(B) 60

(C) 83

(D) 90

Answer: C

99. The greatest number which can divide 1356,1868 and 2764 leaving the same remainder 12 in each case is:

(A) 64

(B) 124

(C) 156

(D) 260

Answer: A

100. How many pieces of 85 cm length can be cut from a rod 42.5 metres long?

(A) 30

(B) 40

(C) 60

(D) None of these

Answer: D


PART C


Directions: For question Nos 101 to 105, choose the correct alternative from the given options

101. 28,33,31,36,?,39

(A) 32

(B) 34

(C) 38

(D) 40

Answer: B



102. 2,2,5,13,28,?

(A) 49

(B) 50

(C) 51

(D) 52

Answer: D



103. DHL, PTX, BFJ, ?

(A) CGK

(B) KOS

(C) NRV

(D) RVZ

Answer: C



104. Z,X,S,I,R,R,?,?

(A) G,I

(B) J,I

(C) J,K

(D) K,M

Answer: A



105. 2,9,28,?,126,217,344

(A) 50

(B) 65

(C) 70

(D) 82

Answer: B

Directions: For Question Nos. 106 to 110, select the related numbers/words/groups to complete the anology

106. Googly : Cricket :: Deuce : ?

(A) Polo

(B) Tennis

(C) Football

(D) Rugby

Answer: B



107. 25 : 37 :: 49 : ?

(A) 41

(B) 56

(C) 60

(D) 65

Answer: D

108. GHF : CDB :: EFD : ?

(A) ABJ

(B) CBD

(C) IJH

(D) AJB

Answer: A

109. Knoll : Hill :: Eclogue : ?

(A) Poem

(B) Music

(C) Drama

(D) Ballad

Answer: A

110. 48 : 122 :: 168 : ?

(A) 215                                    (B) 225                                    (C) 290                                    (D) 292

Answer: C

Directions:  In each of the following questions, a word is represented  by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in the two given matrices. The columns and rows of matrix I can be numbered from 0 to 4 and those of matrix II from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and then column number. Identify the correct set for the word given in each questions from 111 to 115.



01234
0FANOI
1IOFAN
2ANOIF
3OFINA
4NIAFO


56789
5SEHBT
6HSETB
7BTSEH
8EHTBS
9TSEHB



111. NEST

(A) 02,56,55,59

(B) 14,67,66,67

(C)  21,76,77,76

(D) 33,85,88,86

Answer: A



112. FAITH

(A) 43, 42, 41,78, 89

(B) 31,34,23,76,79

(C) 24.31,10,59,57

(D) 12,20,40,68,65

Answer: B

113. FINE

(A) 31,32,33,82

(B) 24,19,21,78

(C) 12,10,13,67

(D) 00,04,02,56

Answer: D

114. HEAT

(A) 79,53,20,87

(B) 65,56,13,57

(C) 57,56,01,59

(D) 29,85, 34, 93

Answer: C

115. BOTH

(A) 88, 30,85,86

(B)75,22,76,79

(C) 69,67,68,59

(D) 58,02,68,65

Answer: B



Directions (Questions 116 to 120): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.

(i) P,Q,R,S,T and U are six members in a family in which there are two married couples.

(ii) T, a teacher, is married to the doctor who is the mother of R and U.

(iii) Q, the lawyer, is married to P.

(iv) P has one son and one grandson.

(v) Of the two married ladies one is a houswife.

(vi) There is also one student and one male engineer in the family.

Directions (Questions 116 to 120): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.

(i) P,Q,R,S,T and U are six members in a family in which there are two married couples.

(ii) T, a teacher, is married to the doctor who is the mother of R and U.

(iii) Q, the lawyer, is married to P.

(iv) P has one son and one grandson.

(v) Of the two married ladies one is a houswife.

(vi) There is also one student and one male engineer in the family.



116. How is P related to R?

(A) Grandfather

(B) Mother

(C) Grandmother

(D) Aunt

Answer: C

117. Who among the following is the housewife?

(A) P

(B) Q

(C) S

(D) T

Answer: A

118. How is R related to U?

(A) Brother

(B) Sister

(C) A or B

(D) data inadequate

Answer: C

119. Which of the following represents the group of females in the family?

(A) PSR

(B) PSU

(C) QTR

(D) data inadequate

Answer: D

120. Which of the following is true about the granddaughter in the family?

(A) she is a lawyer

(B) she is a student

(C) she is an engineer

(D) data ineadequate

Answer: B

121. If 'train; is called 'bus', 'bus' is called 'tractor', 'tractor' is called 'car', 'car' is called scooter', 'scooter' is called 'bicycle', 'bicycle' is called moped, which is used to plough a field?

(A) Train

(B) Bus

(C) Car

(D) Tractor

Answer: C



Directions (Questions 122 to 126): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.

(i) Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to P,Q,R,S,T and U

(ii) Q gets North facing flat and is not next to S.

(iii) S and U get diagonally opposite flats.

(iv) R, next to U, gets a south facing flat and T gets a north facing  flat.



122. Which of the following combinations get south facing flats?

(A) QTS

(B) UPT

(C) URP

(D) none of these

Answer: D

123. Whose flat is between Q and S?

(A) T

(B) U

(C) R

(D) P

Answer: A

124. If the flats T and P are interchanged, whose flat will be next to that of U?

(A) P

(B) Q

(C) R

(D) T

Answer: C

125. The flats of which of the other pairs than SU, are diagonally opposite to each other?

(A) QP

(B) QR

(C) PT

(D) TS

Answer: A

126. To arrive at the answers to the above questions, which of the following statements can be dispensed with?

(A) none

(B) i only

(C) ii only

(D) iii only

Answer: A



Directions (Questions 127 to 131): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.

In a family, there are six members A,B,C,D,E and F. A and B are married couple, A being the male member. D is the only son of C, who is the brother of A. E is the sister of D. B is the daughter in law of F, whose husband has died.

127. How is F related to A?

(A) Mother

(B) Sister in law

(C) Sister

(D) Mother in law

Answer: A

128. How is E related to C?

(A) Sister

(B) Daughter

(C) Cousin

(D) Aunt

Answer: B

129. Who is C to B?

(A) Brother

(B) Brother in law

(C) Nephew

(D) Son in law

Answer: B

130. How many male members are there in the family?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

Answer: C

131. How is F related to C?

(A) Mother in law

(B) Sister in law

(C) Mother

(D) Aunt

Answer: C

Directions (Questions 132 to 135): in these questions, a set of figures carrying certain numbers/alphabets is given. Assuming that the numbers in each set follow a similar pattern find the missing term

132.

14?
425
223
4964169





(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 6

Answer: C

133.

HKQ
CGO
EJ?



(A) T

(B) P

(C) N

(D) L

Answer: A

134.

bis mechanical previous year question papers 2014-examshouters dot in 134

(A) 11

(B) 12

(C) 22

(D) 33

Answer: C



135.

bis mechanical previous year question papers 2014-examshouters dot in

(A) 45

(B) 50

(C) 60

(D) 63

Answer: D

Directions (Questions 136 to 140): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions

Anitha, Mahima, Rajan, Latha and Deepthi are five cousins. Anitha is twice as old as Mahima. Rajan is half the age of Mahima. Anitha is half the age of Deepthi and Rajan is twice the age of Latha.

136. Who is the youngest?

(A) Deepthi

(B) Rajan

(C) Latha

(D) Anitha

Answer: C

137. Who is the eldest?

(A) Deepthi

(B) Latha

(C) Anitha

(D) None of these

Answer: A

138. Which of the following pairs of prsons are of the same age?

(A) Mahima and Latha

(C) Anitha and Mahima

(C) Mahima and Rajan

(D) None of these

Answer:D

139. Anitha is younger than ?

(A) Rajan

(B) Mahima

(C) Deepthi

(D) None of these

Answer: C

140. If Mahima is 16 years old, then what is the age of Latha?

(A) 4 years

(B) 5 years

(C) 7 years

(D) 14 years

Answer: A



Directions (Questions 141 to 145): Choose the odd man out

141. (A) Baboon

(B) Gibbon

(C) Gorilla

(D) Jaguar

Answer: D

142. (A) Rabbit

(B) Rat

(C) Mangoose

(D) Cat

Answer: D

143. (A) Grass

(B) Fern

(C) Moss

(D) Algae

Answer: A

144. 196, 169, 144, 121,101

(A)  101

(B) 121

(C) 169

(D) 196

Answer: A

145. 1,3,12,25,48

(A) 3

(B) 12

(C) 25

(D) 48

Answer: C

Directions(Questions 146-148): In a certain code, 'it be pee' means 'roses are blue', 'sik hee' means 'red flowers' and 'pee mit hee' means 'flowers are vegetables'.

146. How is 'red' written in that code?

(A) hee

(B) sik

(C) be

(D) none of these

Answer: B

147. How is 'roses' written in that code?

(A) il

(B) pee

(C) be

(D) cannot be determined

Answer: D

148. How is 'vegetables are red flowers' written in this code?

(A) pee sik mit hee

(B) sik pee hee be

(C) il sik mit hee

(D) None of these

Answer: A

149. Pointing towards a person in the photograph, Anjali said, "He is the only son of the father of my sister's brother." How is that person related to Anjali?

(A) Mother

(B) Father

(C) Maternal uncle

(D) None of these

Answer: D

150. In a row of boys, A is fifteenth from the left and B is fourth from the right. There are three boys between A and B. C is just left of A. What is C's position from the right?

(A) 9

(B) 10

(C) 12

(D) 13

Answer: A


PART D




151. The maximum number of faces in a precision polygons can be

(A) 72

(B) 28

(C) 12

(D) 20

Answer: A

152. Shaft revolving in a bearing is the following type of pair

(A) higher pair

(B) lower pair

(C) spherical pair

(D) cylindrical pair

Answer: B

153. A cantilever beam is deflected by d due to load P. if beam width is doubled, then the deflection compared to earlier case will be changed by a factor of

(A) 2

(B) 1/2

(C) 1/8

(D) 8

Answer: C

154. Which of the following is not a vector quantity

(A) accelaration

(B) pressure

(C) moment

(D) force

Answer: B

155. The maximum combustion pressure in gas turbine as compared to I.C. engine is

(A) more

(B) less

(C) same

(D) unpredictable

Answer: B

156. Cetane number of petrol is around

(A) 10

(B)15-20

(C)20-25

(D) 30-35

Answer: A

157. Expansion in a nozzle is a

(A) isothermal process

(B) isochoric process

(C) adiabatic process

(D)isobaric process

Answer: C

158. Maximum cutting angles are used for machining

(A) mild steel

(B) cast iron

(C) nickel alloy

(D) aluminium alloy

Answer: D

159. Following type of cam is used for high speed engines

(A) involute

(B) cycloidal

(C) flat

(D) harmonic

Answer: B

160. Applications in which stresses are encountered in one direction only uses following types of threads

(A) BSW

(B) buttress

(C) ACME

(D)square

Answer: B

161. The crystal structure of brass is

(A) F.C.C

(B) B.C.C

(C) H.C.P

(D) none of above

Answer: A

162. Froude number is the ratio of inertial force to

(A) gravitational force

(B) elasticity

(C) viscous force

(D) surface tension

Answer: A

163. For pumping viscous oil, which pump will be used

(A) centrifugal pump

(B) axial pump

(C) reciprocating pump

(D) Screw pump

Answer: D

164. On psychrometric chart, dry bulb temparature lines are

(A) horizontal

(B) vertical

(C) straight line sloping downward to the right

(D) curved

Answer: B

165. Which of the following is expected to have highest thermal conductivity?

(A) steam

(B) solid ice

(C) melting ice

(D) water

Answer: B

166. If rain is falling in the opposite direction of the movement of a pedestrian, he has to hold his umbrella

(A) more inclined when moving

(B) less inclined when moving

(C) more inclined when standing

(D) less inclined when standing

Answer: D

167. A hollow shaft of same cross-section area as solid shaft transmits

(A) same torque

(B) less torque

(C) more torque

(D) none of the above

Answer: C

168. Maximum percentage of carbon in austenite is

(A) 0.26%

(B) 0.8%

(C) 1.25%

(D) 1.7%

Answer: D

169. Thermit welding is a form of

(A) resistance welding

(B) gas welding

(C) fusion welding

(D) forge welding

Answer: C

170. Gears are best mass produced by

(A) milling

(B) hobbing

(C) shaping

(D) casting

Answer: B

171. When a gas flows through a very long pipe of uniform cross section, the flow is approximately

(A) isentropic

(B) isobaric

(C) isothermal

(D) adiabatic

Answer: C

172. The cam shaft of a four stroke I.C. engine running at 1500 rpm will run at

(A) 1500 rpm

(B) 750 rpm

(C) 3000 rpm

(D) 4500rpm

Answer: B

173. Regenerator in gas turbine results in

(A) improved thermal efficiency

(B) lower work ratio

(C) higher work ratio

(D) lower thermal efficiency

Answer: A

174. Thermal conductivity of air with rise in temperature

(A) increases

(B) decreases

(C) remains constant

(D) unpredictable

Answer: A

175. Highest efficiency is obtained with following channel section

(A) circular

(B) triangular

(C) rectangular

(D) trapezoidal

Answer: D

176. Maximum efficiency of transmission of power through pipe is

(A) 25%

(B) 33.3%

(C) 50%

(D) 66.6%

Answer: D

177. An elevator weighing 1000 kg attains an upward velocity of 4m/s in two seconds with uniform acceleration. The tension in the supporting cables will be

(A) 1000 kg

(B) 500 kg

(C) 1200 kg

(D) 2000 kg

Answer: D

178. Resilience of a material is considered when it is subjected to

(A) heat treatment

(B) fatigue

(C) shock loading

(D) creep

Answer: C

179. A three rotor system has following number of natural frequencies

(A) one

(B) two

(C) three

(D)four

Answer: B

180. Which of the following errors are regularly repetitive in nature?

(A) systematic errors

(B) random errors

(C) calibration errors

(D) controllable errors

Answer: A

181. Critical path moves along the activities having total float of

(A) positive value

(B) negative value

(C) zero value

(D) same value

Answer: C

182. For a floating body to be in stable equilibrium the meta-centre should be

(A) below the centre of gravity

(B) below the centre of buoyancy

(C) above the centre of buoyancy

(D) above the centre of gravity

Answer: D

183. Triple point  of a pure substance on p-V diagram is represented by

(A) point

(B) line

(C) curve

(D) triangle

Answer: B

184. Cochran boiler is a

(A) horizontal fire tube boiler

(B) stationary water tube boiler

(C) vertical fire tube boiler

(D) vertical fire tube boiler

Answer: D

185. One ton refrigeration is equal to

(A) 210 kJ/min

(B) 21 kJ/min

(C) 21 kJ/min

(D) 210 J/min

Answer: A

186. The type of motion when the acceleration is proportional to displacement is called

(A) translation

(B) rotational

(C) SHM

(D) gyroscopic

Answer: C

187. In the design of pulley, key and shaft

(A) all three are designed for same strength

(B) key is made weaker

(C) pulley is made weaker

(D) shaft is made weaker

Answer: B

188. The gear box in automobiles is placed between

(A) the clutch and differntial

(B) the steering and engine

(C) the engine and clutch

(D) the differential and hook's joint

Answer: C

189. Shear stress theory is applicable for

(A) ductile material

(B) brittle material

(C) elastic material

(D) all of the above

Answer: A

190. For steel castings , the following type of sand is better

(A) fine-grain

(B) coarse-grain

(C) medium-grain

(D) all of the above

Answer: B

191. Nominal diameter of a bolt is

(A) larger than the actual diameter

(B) smaller than the actual diameter

(C) same as the actual diameter

(D) none of the above

Answer: A

192. For ship vessel industry the following layout is best suited

(A) process layout

(B) product layout

(C) fixed position layout

(D) plant layout

Answer: C

193. The probability distribution of project completion in PERT follows following distribution

(A) normal

(B) Gaussian

(C) beta

(D) exponential

Answer: B

194. According to kinetic theory of gases, the absolute zero temperature is attained when

(A) volume of gas is zero

(B) pressure of gas is zero

(C) kinetic energy of the molecules is zero

(D) specific heat of gas is zero

Answer: C

195. Air cycle efficiency for a petrol engine having compression ratio of 5:1 will be

(A) 80%

(B) 60%

(C) 47.5%

(D) 42.5%

Answer: C

196. In laminar flow through a round tube, the discharge varies

(A) linearly as the viscosity

(B) inversly as the pressure drop

(C) as the cube of the diameter

(D) inversely as the viscosity

Answer: D

197. For a machine to be self locking, its efficiency should be

(A) 100%

(B) less than 67%

(C) less than 50%

(D) more than 50%

Answer: C

198. A cam with a roller follower would constitute following  type of pair

(A) lower pair

(B) higher pair

(C) open pair

(D) close pair

Answer: B

199. Emissivity of a white polished body in comparison to a black body is

(A) higher

(B) lower

(C) same

(D) depends upon the shape of body

Answer: B

200. Annealing is done by cooling in

(A) air

(B) furnace

(C) water

(D) brine

Answer: A
Feel free to ask any doubts in this question papers and share your honest opinions about this blog. Thank you
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24 Sept 2015

GRSE Assistant Manager Previous Year Electrical Question Papers 2014

grse electrical manager question papers 2014 free download

Garden shipbuilders and engineers ltd (GRSE) is one of the mini ratana company in India, who mainly contributes to defense area by building warships. GRSE have a wonderful engineering section and have wide opportunities mainly for be or b tech graduates of Mechanical, Mechanical & Industrial engineering, Mechanical & Production engineering, Electrical, Electrical & Electronics, Electrical & instrumentation, Navel architecture, Ocean engineering & Navel architecture, navel architecture & shipbuilding, Navel architecture & marine engineering and Navel architecture & ocean engineering.

GRSE Question Papers Electrical 2014


This post contains GRSE question papers 2014 competitive examination in the electrical engineering stream. This question papers contains electrical engineering questions, quantitative aptitude, English and reasoning type questions. It contains total 85 multiple choice questions; 50 from basic electrical engineering and 35 from general aptitude. GRSE follows the same examination pattern for the all engineering recruitment examinations. The below provides some of the important electrical subjects syllabus; you should learn before writing the grse assistant manager electrical online examination. You can also download GRSE Electrical Previous Year Question Papers completely free of cost and link provided below the post.

GRSE Electrical Syllabus

  • Electrical Machines

  • Power Electronics

  • Electrical circuits

  • Signals and Systems

  • Analog and Digital Measurements

  • Control systems

  • Power Systems

  • Electrical and Electronics Measurements etc
GRSE Examination Tip:- You should have an basic knowledge about your core engineering subjects, workout more numerical ability, reasoning, data analysis and English language questions.

GRSE Electrical Sample Questions


PART- A

1. Synonym of APATHETIC
(A) Caring

(B) Concerned

(C) Refusing

(D) Emotionless

Answer: D

2. An unexpected piece of good fortune

(A) windfall

(B) philanthrophy

(C) benevolence

(D) turnstile

Answer: A

3. Find the correctly spelt word.

(A) parapharnelia

(B) parsimonious

(C) peccadillo

(D) peadiatrics

Answer: B

4. Choose the correct alternative to the bold part of the sentence given below.

“ A callous system generates nothing but a mica mope”

(A) develops

(B) induces

(C) produces

(D) No improvement

Answer: C

.........................

PART B

36. Installation of high voltage bus-bar in a substation requires

A) Disc insulator

B) Shackle insulator

C) Post insulator

D) Pin insulator



37. Stranded conductors are preferred to solid over head conductors as

A) They are more flexible

B) They may be wound over a drum for easy transportation

C) May be designed to have larger effective cross section

D) All of these



38 . Resistance units in valve type lighting arrestor is made from

A) Nicrome wire

B) Parallel connection of carbon resistor

C) Parallel connection of metal film resistor

D) Silicon carbide

......

.....

85. Two thyristor of same rating and same specifications will have

A) Equal turn on and turn off periods

B) Equal turn on but unequal turn off periods

C) Equal or unequal turn on and turn off periods

D) Unequal turn on and turn off periods



To see more questions and download GRSE question papers mechanical 2014 examinations, click link below.

GRSE Assistant Manager Electrical Question Papers 2014 Free Download


If you experience any trouble in downloading the grse question papers, read how to download question papers from ExamShouters.in
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18 Sept 2015

Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) | Exam Shouters.IN

Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) is one of the toughest competitive examination in India; mainly conducted for selecting young, brilliant and bright engineering graduates for higher studies in  IIT's (Indian institute of technology) , NIIT's other institutes in India. GATE is conducted jointly by IISc and IIT's on behalf of ministry of human resources development, govt of India. The main eligibility criteria of GATE exam is B.E/B.Tech in engineering graduate / final year student/ or having equivalent degree in engineering disciplines.

Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE)


Most of the public sector units (PSU) India also consider this competitive exam as a screen level test for engineering jobs. It is computer based test (online test) contains 23 question papers prepared jointly by IISc and IIT institutions. This post contains the gate examination pattern, eligibility criteria, gate previous year question papers with answer keys, gate exam syllabus of various disciplines and list of PSU companies select graduates through gate 2016.

Gate 2016 Important Details

Application FeesRs. 1500/- Male and General candidates; Rs. 750/- for female and SC/ST/PWD categories
Payment ModeOnline and e-challan available
Application Starting Date01/09/2015
Application Closing Date01/10/2015
Examination Date30/01/2016 to 7/02/2016
Validity of Gate Score :3 Years (from the date of announcement of results)

Currently, GATE 2016 notifications are online for apply eligible candidates. Click here to see latest gate 2016 notifications and online application

Gate 2016 Exam Pattern

Gate exam contains total 65 questions, carry 100 marks and 3 hours time to complete it. The 15% of total marks is from engineering mathematics, 15% of total marks from general aptitude section and 70% of total marks from the subject of your paper. According to new exam pattern, gate includes some numerical answer entering via virtual pad questions and all others are multiple choice questions of different levels.


 Exam PatternTotal = 100 Marks
Subject/Discipline Questions70%
Engineering Mathematics15%
General aptitude15%

Gate Eligibility Criteria

Candidate are eligible to apply gate 2016 having:-
4 year Bachelor of engineering (B.E)/ bachelor of technology (B.Tech) degree completed or final year student or equivalent degree in various engineering disciplines.

or

B.Arch (bachelor degree of architecture), 5 years/B.Sc (bachelor degree in science, 4 years)/M.Sc/M.A/MCA etc.

To know more click here.

Gate Exam Syllabus

(update soon)

Gate Previous Year Question Papers with Answer Keys

(Update soon)

PSU Engineering Jobs Recruitment through GATE 2016 Company Lists

PSU NameDisciplinesNotifications
Bharat Broadband Network Limited (BBNL)Computers Science/Electronics & Communication/Electrical engineeringUpdate soon
Bank Note Paper Mill India Pvt. Ltd (BNPM)Mechanical/Chemical/ Electronics & Communication/Electrical EngineeringUpdate soon
Bharat Petroleum Corporation Ltd (BPCL)Mechanical/Chemical/Civil/ Instrumentation/Electrical EngineeringSee BPCL notifications
Central Electronics Limited (CEL)Electronics & Communication/Electrical engineering/Engineering SciencesUpdate soon
Coal India Limited (CIL)Electrical/Mechanical/Geology and Geophysics/Mining EngineeringUpdate soon
GAIL LimitedChemical/Electrical/Instrumentation/mechanical EngineeringSee GAIL Notifications
Gujarat State Electricity Corporation Limited (GSECL)Electrical/Mechanical/Instrumentation/Metallurgical engineeringUpdate soon
Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd (HPCL)Civil/ Electronics & Communication/Electrical/Instrumentation/MechanicalSee HPCL Notifications
Indian Oil Corporation Ltd (IOCL)Civil/Chemical/Computer science/ Electronics & Communication/Electrical/Instrumentation/Mechanical/Metallurgical/Mining engineeringVisit here
IRCON International Ltd (IRCON)Civil / Electronics & Communication/Electrical/Mechanical engineeringUpdate soon
Mazagon Dock Ship builders Ltd (MDL)Electrical/Mechanical EngineeringSee MDL Notifications
Mineral Exploration Corporation Ltd (MECL)Chemical/Computer science/Geology and Geophysics/Mechanical engineeringUpdate soon
National Aluminum Company Limited (NALCO)Civil/Chemical/Computer science/Electronics & communication/ Electrical/ Instrumentation/Mechanical/Mining/metallurgical engineeringUpdate soon
National Building Construction Corporation Ltd (NBCC)Civil engineering update soon
National Fertilizers Ltd (NFL)Chemical/Electrical/Instrumentation/Mechanical engineeringUpdate soon
National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)Civil engineeringUpdate soon
National Hydroelectric Power Corporation Ltd (NHPC)Electrical engineeringUpdate soon
Neyveli Lignite Corporation Ltd (NLC)Civil/ Computer science/Electrical/Instrumentation/Mechanical/Mining EngineeringSee NLC Notifications
National Projects Construction Corporation Ltd (NPCCL)Civil engineeringUpdate soon
National Thermal Power Corporation Ltd (NTPC)Electronics & communication/Electrical/Instrumentation/Mechanical engineeringUpdate soon
Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Ltd (ONGC)Civil/ Chemical/Computer science/Chemistry/Electronics & Communication/Electrical/Geology and Geophysics/Instrumentation/Mechanical/Mathematics/Physics/Engineering SciencesUpdate soon
Odisha Power Generation Corporation Ltd (OPGC)Civil/Electrical/Instrumentation/MechanicalUpdate soon
Power Grid Corporation of India Ltd (PGCIL)Civil/Computer science/Electrical engineeringUpdate soon
Punjab State Power Corporation Ltd (PSPCL)Civil/Computer science/Electrical/Electronics & Communication/Instrumentation/Mechanical engineeringUpdate soon
Rail India Technical and Economic Service (RITES)Civil/Mechanical EngineeringUpdate soon
Rail Vikas Nigam Ltd (RVNL)Civil/Electronics & communication/Electrical engineeringUpdate soon
Tehri Hydro Development Company(THDC)Civil/Electrical/ Mechanical engineeringUpdate soon

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17 Sept 2015

Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)

Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is National standard body of India, which is Govt. of India owned organization under the administrative control of ministry of Consumer affairs, Food and public Distributions. The main activates of BIS are Standardization, Product and System Certifications, Hallmarking of Gold/Silver Jewellery, Laboratory testing and certifications at international level etc.
Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)


For young Bachelor of Engineering (B.E) or Bachelor of Technology (B.Tech) graduates of different discipline, BIS provides wide career opportunities mainly in the post of ‘Scientist B’. The qualified disciplines are Mechanical Engineering, Metallurgical engineering, Civil Engineering, Electrical Engineering, Electronics Engineering, Chemical Engineering, Chemistry, Microbiology, Leather technology It also provide an attractive salary package of pay scale of Rs. 15600-39100 with grade pay of Rs. 5400 if applicable. This post you can see the Bureau of Indian Standards selection procedure, eligibility criteria and previous year question papers.

Current News: BIS called for post of Scientist B for young, bright graduate in B.E/B.Tech/M.Sc candidates. Read the Detailed Notifications Here.

BIS Eligibility Criteria

For Engineering Discipline:- Bachelor of Engineering (B.E) or Bachelor of Technology (B.Tech) or equivalent with minimum 60% of marks in aggregate. For SC/ST candidates minimum 50% marks required.

For M.Sc Discipline:- Masters Degree in Natural Science or equivalent degree in the concerned discipline with minimum 60% marks in aggregate. (50% for SC/ST)

Age Limit: You must have 21-30 years of maximum age on 01/09/2015. For SC/ST/OBC/PWD/Ex-Serviceman/other reservation candidates have upper age relaxation applied as per the reservation rules.

BIS Selection Procedure

First you should submit the BIS online application form through the main website (www.bis.org.in). After submitting the form you need to pay a non-refundable amount of Rs.750/- for the application processing fee, via online payment mode only and must completed with in the given date period. Once your application form accepted, BIS will notified for downloading the admit card or call letter for online exam.

The examination centers are Hyderabad/Secunderbad, Vishakhapatnam, Vijaywada, Itanagar, Guwahati, Patna, Chandigarh, Raipur, Verna, Ahmedabad/Gandhinagar, Vadodara, Shimla, Jammu, Bhilai, Ranchi, Jamshedpur, Bengaluru, Mangalore, Kochi, Thiruvananthapuram, Bhopal, Indore, Jabalpur, Greater Mumbai,/Navi Mumbai/Thane, Nagpur, Pune, Shillong, National Capital Region (Delhi), Bhubaneshwar, Berhampur, Puduchrry, Amritsar, Bikaner, Jaipur, Udaipur, Gangtok, Chennai, Coimbatore, Agartala, Allahabad, Lucknow, Dehradun, Durgapur, Greater Kolkata and Siliguri.

Candidates who cleared the BIS online exam will call for personal interview and call letter will available on the BIS main website.

BIS Exam Pattern

The BIS online exam contains 200 objective questions and you need to complete within 120 minutes (2 hours). All objective questions carry one marks. The questions are divided in 4 parts of 50 questions such as Technical Knowledge of concerned discipline, Quantitative aptitude, Quantitative Reasoning and English language. There is negative marks penalty for wrong answers.

BIS Previous Year Question Papers

BIS Scientist Online Exam Sample Question Paper

BIS Mechanical Mock Question Papers 2015 with Answerkeys

If you didn't the PDF question paper, read How to Download Question Papers from Examshouters.in
Feel free to share your honest opinions about this blog and thank you friends. Good luck for exams.
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16 Sept 2015

Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) | Exam Shouters.IN

Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) is one of the leading space science and space research Technology Company involved in the design and development of space transportation and satellites. It is governed by Department of science, Government of India. It serves our country in different fields such as television broadcast, telecommunication, meteorological applications etc.

indiuan space reserach organisation isro


There is a very good engineering research section which concentrated to development of higher efficiency cryo engines, air breathing propulsion, satellite based navigation system, hyper spectral imaging sensors etc. ISRO have wide job opportunities for the posts of scientists and engineers mainly for young Bachelor of Engineering (B.E) or Bachelor of Technology (B.Tech) graduates (Mechanical, electronics, Computer Science, Electrical, Refrigeration and A/C etc). This post contains the Various ISRO centers, selection procedure and ISRO previous year scientist or engineers with answer keys.

Best Quantitative Aptitude and Reasoning Books 2015-2016 Exams

Different ISRO Centers


Mainly Indian Space Research Organization has different divisions in India. The Department of Space and ISRO Headquarters (HQ) is located in Bengluru. Other ISRO centers are Vikaram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC), SDSC SHAR, ISRO Satellite Centre (ISAC),IPRC Mahendragiri, Space Applications Centre (SAC), National Remote Sensing (NRSC), ISRO Telemetry, Tracking and Command Network (ISTRAC), ISRO Inertial Systems Unit (IISU), Laboratory for Electro-Optics Systems (LEOS), Development and Educational Communication Unit (DECU), Indian Institute of Remote Sensing (IIRS), Physical Research Laboratory (NARL), Master Control Facility (MCF), North Eastern-Space Applications centre (NESAC), Semi-Conductor Laboratory (SCL) and Antrix Corporation Limited. The main recruitment of Scientists/Engineers posts are through both ICRB and VSSC.

ISRO Selection Procedure


You can find latest recruitment notices or notifications in employment newspapers or main website career section. Most of the engineers called for Scientists/Engineers “SC” posts with pay band of 15600-39100/- rupees including the grade pay (Rs.5400/-).

To apply for any post in ISRO, you should go to the ISRO website (www.isro.gov.in) and click on the career section. Here you can find the current job vacancies, eligibility, time period of application etc. Once you find the job vacancies, fill online application form contained in the post link. Then you will get a registration number, which should note down for future reference of your application.
Note: Candidate should have B.E/B.Tech or equivalent First Class degree with minimum 65% of marks.

ISRO also have application processing fee (Rs.100/- per application). When you complete the online application form, your challan form will generate. Take printout of your challan and pay through State bank of India in between the given time period. The SBI keeps the bank copy part of the challan and other two parts return to candidate by entering the journal number. The ISRO copy sends to the address mentioned in the post notifications.

The qualified candidates called for written test will conducted on various locations in India and that also mentioned in the notifications. The candidates who score marks higher than the ISRO cutoff mark called for personal interview and candidate should score minimum 60% score in interview for considering them to final section.

ISRO Scientist/Engineers Previous Year Question Papers

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9 Sept 2015

GRSE Assistant Manager Previous Year Mechanical Question Papers 2014with Answer Keys

grse mechanical question papers free downloads

Garden shipbuilders and engineers ltd (GRSE) is one of the mini ratana company in India, who mainly contributes to defense area by building warships. GRSE have a wonderful engineering section and have wide opportunities mainly for be or b tech graduates of Mechanical, Mechanical & Industrial engineering, Mechanical & Production engineering, Electrical, Electrical & Electronics, Electrical & instrumentation, Navel architecture, Ocean engineering & Navel architecture, navel architecture & shipbuilding, Navel architecture & marine engineering and Navel architecture & ocean engineering.

GRSE Question Papers Mechanical 2014

This post contains GRSE question papers 2014 competitive examination in the mechanical engineering stream. This question papers contains mechanical engineering questions, quantitative aptitude, English and reasoning type questions. It contains total 85 multiple choice questions; 50 from basic mechanical engineering and 35 from general aptitude. GRSE follows the same examination pattern for the engineering recruitment examinations.

GRSE Mechanical Syllabus

  • Themrodynamics

  • Fluid Mechanics

  • Theory of Machines

  • Engineering Mechanics

  • Mechanics of Materials

  • Heat Transfer

  • Power Engineering

  • Machine Design etc
GRSE Examination Tip:- You should have an basic knowledge about your core engineering subjects, workout more numerical ability, reasoning, data analysis and English language questions.

GRSE Sample Questions


PART- A

1. Synonym of APATHETIC
(A) Caring

(B) Concerned

(C) Refusing

(D) Emotionless

Answer: D

2. An unexpected piece of good fortune

(A) windfall

(B) philanthrophy

(C) benevolence

(D) turnstile

Answer: A

3. Find the correctly spelt word.

(A) parapharnelia

(B) parsimonious

(C) peccadillo

(D) peadiatrics

Answer: B

4. Choose the correct alternative to the bold part of the sentence given below.

“ A callous system generates nothing but a mica mope”

(A) develops

(B) induces

(C) produces

(D) No improvement

Answer: C

.........................

PART B

36.  When a gas flows through a very long pipe of uniform cross section, the flow is approximately

(A) isentropic

(B) isobaric

(C) isothermal

(D) adiabatic

Answer: C

37. Pulley in a belt drive acts as

(A) cylindrical pair

(B) rolling pair

(C) turning pair

(D) sliding pair

Answer: B

38. For a floating body to be in stable equilibrium, its metacentre should be

(A) below the centre of gravity

(B) below the centre of buoyancy

(C) between c.g and centre of pressure

(D) above the centre of gravity

Answer: D

39. Which of the following key transmits power through frictional resistance only?

(A) Square key

(B) Tapered key

(C) Kennedy key

(D) Saddle key

Answer: D

40. The maximum strain energy that can be stored in a body is known as

(A) impact energy

(B) resilience

(C) proof resilience

(D) modulus of resilience

Answer: C

................................

To see more questions and download GRSE question papers mechanical 2014 examinations, click link below.

GRSE Assistant Manager Mechanical Question Papers 2014 with Answer Keys Free Download


If you experience any trouble in downloading the grse question papers, read how to download question papers from ExamShouters.in
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30 Aug 2015

RRB SSE/JE Free Mock Test Paper 2015 with Answer Keys

RRB SSE/JE Free Mock Test Paper 2015 with Answer Keys

Are you searching for the Railway recruitment board (RRB) of India's previous year or mock test papers? This post contains the free mock test paper of rrb senior section engineers or junior engineers 2015 with answer keys and prepared by exam shouters. It follows the same pattern of RRB's examination which help you to understand the exam pattern. The exam is objective type; multiple choice question papers. Total questions are 150 in numbers and you need to complete it with in 120 minutes. The questions are from the discipline knowledge testing (your discipline), general awareness, general science (basics physics, electronics, chemistry, biology etc), numerical ability and reasoning. Checkout RRB SSE/JE Free Mocke Test Paper 2015 -1

This free mock question paper will help you to prepare for rrb 2015 examination and time management. You should go through the each and every questions of this mock test paper and plan your different rrb zones exam effectively. Happy exam!

If you have any doubt in the answer keys of this free mock test paper, feel free to ask me via, comment form or contact form. 



Solved RRB SSE/JE Mock Question Papers


1. Who is the author of the book 'Freedom Behind Bars'?

(A) Kiran Bedi

(B) Jawaharlal Nehru

(C) Sheikh Abdullah

(D) Nelson Mandela

Answer: A

2. A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?

(A) Rs. 375

(B) Rs. 400

(C) Rs. 600

(D) Rs. 800



Answer: B

3. A train 125 m long passes a man, running at 5 km/hr in the same direction in which the train is going, in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is:

(A) 45 km/hr

(B) 50 km/hr

(C) 54 km/hr

(D) 55 km/hr



Answer: B

4. The depth of cut in drilling is __________ the drill diameter.

(A) equal to

(B) one-fourth

(C) one-half

(D) double



Answer: C

5. When a shaft is subjected to a twisting moment, every cross-section of the shaft will be under

(A) tensile stress

(B) compressive stress

(C) shear stress

(D) bending stress



Answer: C

6. The group of metals Fe, Co, Ni may best called as

(A) transition metals

(B) main group metals

(C) alkali metals

(D) rare metals



Answer: A

7. Manav Seva Award has been instituted in the memory of

(A) Rajiv Gandhi

(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(C) Indira Gandhi

(D) Acharya



Answer: A

8. The output of a NOT gate is HIGH when ________.

(A) the input is LOW

(B) the input is HIGH

(C) power is applied to the gate's IC

(D) power is removed from the gate's IC



Answer: A

9. A certain transformer has 400 turns in the primary winding and 2,000 turns in the secondary winding. The turns ratio is

(A) 0.2

(B) 0.4

(C) 5

(D) 25



Answer: C

10. In the following series: 14, 28, 20, 40, 32, 64, __. What number should come next?

(A) 52

(B) 56

(C) 96

(D) 128



Answer: B



11. The territory of Porus who offered strong resistance to Alexander was situated between the rivers of

(A) Sutlej and Beas

(B) Jhelum and Chenab

(C) Ravi and Chenab

(D) Ganga and Yamuna



Answer: B

12. DIVA : OPERA

(A) producer : theatre

(B) director : drama

(C) conductor : bus

(D) thespian : play



Answer: D

13. This is the plane upon which the top view is projected:

(A) Horizontal

(B) Frontal

(C) Profile

(D) Base



Answer: A

14. Plants growing on sand are called as

(A) chasmophytes

(B) oxylophytes

(C) lithophytes

(D) psammophytes



Answer: D

15. Suitable impurities are added to a semiconductor depending on its use. This is done in order to

(A) increase its life

(B) enable it to withstand higher voltages

(C) increase its electrical conductivity

(D) increase its electrical resistivity



Answer: C

16. Moment of inertia is

(A) vector

(B) scalar

(C) phasor

(D) tensor



Answer: D

17. The metallurgical process in which a metal is obtained in a fused state is called

(A) smelting

(B) roasting

(C) calcinations

(D) froth floatation



Answer: A

18. Who is the first Indian woman to win an Asian Games gold in 400m run?

(A) M.L.Valsamma

(B) P.T.Usha

(C) Kamaljit Sandhu

(D) K.Malleshwari



Answer: C

19. The ratio of the volume of voids to the volume of soil solids in a given soil mass, is known

(A) porosity

(B) specific gravity

(C) void ratio

(D) water content.



Answer: C

20. The friction experienced by a body, when in motion, is known as

(A) rolling friction

(B) dynamic friction

(C) limiting friction

(D) static friction



Answer: B

Related Exam Papers:-

(A) Carnot cycle

(B) Stirling cycle

(C) Otto cycle

(D) Diesel cycle



Answer: D

22. Thermal diffusivity is a

(A) function of temperature

(B) physical property of a substance

(C) dimensionless parameter

(D) all of these



Answer: B

23. The great Victoria Desert is located in

(A) Canada

(B) West Africa

(C) Australia

(D) North America



Answer: C

24. How much time will it take for an amount of Rs. 450 to yield Rs. 81 as interest at 4.5% per annum of simple interest?

(A) 3.5 years

(B) 4 years

(C) 4.5 years

(D) 5 years



Answer: B

25. The length of a rectangle is halved, while its breadth is tripled. What is the percentage change in area?

(A) 25% increase

(B) 50% increase

(C) 50% decrease

(D) 75% decrease



Answer: B

26. Mumps is a disease caused by

(A) fungus

(B) bacterium

(C) virus

(D) None of these



Answer: C

27. Rain is falling vertically downwards. To a man running east-wards, the rain will appear to be coming from

(A) east

(B) west

(C) northeast

(D) southeast



Answer: A

28. Rainbow is due to

(A) absorption of sunlight in minute water droplets

(B) diffusion of sunlight through water droplets

(C) ionisation of water deposits

(D) refraction and reflection of sunlight by water droplets



Answer: D

29. The section of the CPU that selects, interprets and sees to the execution of program instructions

(A) Memory

(B) Register unit

(C) Control unit

(D) ALU



Answer: C

30. ASCII stands for

(A) American standard code for information interchange

(B) All purpose scientific code for information interchange

(C) American security code for information interchange

(D) American Scientific code for information interchange



Answer: A

31. Convert decimal 213 to binary.

(A) 11001101

(B) 11010101

(C) 01111001

(D) 11100011



Answer: B

32. With the positive probe on an NPN base, an ohmmeter reading between the other transistor terminals should be:

(A) open

(B) infinite

(C) low resistance

(D) high resistance



Answer: C

33. 66 cubic centimetres of silver is drawn into a wire 1 mm in diameter. The length of the wire in metres will be:

(A) 84

(B) 90

(C) 168

(D) 336



Answer: A

34. Two numbers are respectively 20% and 50% more than a third number. The ratio of the two numbers is:

(A) 2 : 5

(B) 3 : 5

(C) 4 : 5

(D) 6 : 7



Answer: C

35. When a plot is sold for Rs. 18,700, the owner loses 15%. At what price must that plot be sold in order to gain 15%?

(A) Rs. 21,000

(B) Rs. 22,500

(C) Rs. 25,300

(D) Rs. 25,800



Answer: C

36. In magnetic disks, data is organized on the platter in a concentric sets of rings called

(A) sector

(B) track

(C) head

(D) block



Answer: B

37. A resistor is connected across a 50 V source. What is the current in the resistor if the color code is red, orange, orange, silver?

(A) 2 mA

(B) 2.2 mA

(C) 214 mA

(D) 21.4 mA



Answer: B

38. Amjad Ali Khan is associated with which of the following musical instruments?

(A) Sarod

(B) Veena

(C) Violin

(D) Sitar



Answer: A

39. Dr. Joon Lew of Korea, the recipient of international Gandhi Award is known for his service in the?

(A) Eradication of leprosy

(B) Campaigning against AIDS

(C) Against Drugs

(D) Against child labour



Answer: A

40: The average salinity of sea water is

(A) 3%.

(B) 3.5%

(C) 2.5%

(D) 2%



Answer: B


41. The weekly Commonweal was founded by

(A) Annie Besant

(B) Bipan Chandra Pal

(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(D) Sarojini Naidu



Answer: A

42. The first Indian railway was laid in

(A) 1775

(B) 1804

(C) 1825

(D) 1853



Answer: D

43. Pick up the method of surveying in which field observations and plotting proceed simultaneously from the following

(A) chain surveying

(B) compass surveying

(C) plan table surveying

(D) tacheometric surveying.



Answer: C

44.Two pipes A and B together can fill a cistern in 4 hours. Had they been opened separately, then B would have taken 6 hours more than A to fill the cistern. How much time will be taken by A to fill the cistern separately?

(A) 1 hour

(B) 2 hours

(C) 6 hours

(D) 8 hours



Answer: C

45. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals of 2, 4, 6, 8 10 and 12 seconds respectively. In 30 minutes, how many times do they toll together ?

(A) 4

(B) 10

(C) 15

(D) 16



Answer: D

46. Two numbers A and B are such that the sum of 5% of A and 4% of B is two-third of the sum of 6% of A and 8% of B. Find the ratio of A : B.

(A) 2 : 3

(B) 1 : 1

(C) 3 : 4

(D) 4 : 3



Answer: D

47. Garampani sanctuary is located at

(A) Junagarh, Gujarat

(B) Diphu, Assam

(C) Kohima, Nagaland

(D) Gangtok, Sikkim



Answer: B

48.Who declared that his ultimate aim was to wipe 'every tear from every eye'?

(A) Rajendra Prasad

(B) Sardar Patel

(C) Jawaharlal Nehru

(D) Mahatma Gandhi



Answer: C

49. Which of the following places is famous for Chikankari work, which is a traditional art of embroidery?

(A) Lucknow

(B) Hyderabad

(C) Jaipur

(D) Mysore



Answer: A

50. A computer program that converts an entire program into machine language at one time is called a/an

(A) interpreter

(B) simulator

(C) compiler

(D) commander



Answer: C

51. A moderator generally used in nuclear power plants is

(A) graphite

(B) heavy water

(C) concrete

(D) graphite and concrete



Answer: D

52. The injection pressure in a diesel engine is about

(A) 10 bar

(B) 100 bar

(C) 150 bar

(D) 500 bar



Answer: B

53. The pressure less than atmospheric pressure is known as

(A) suction pressure

(B) vacuum pressure

(C) negative gauge pressure

(D) all of these



Answer: D

54. The sole purpose of a commutator in a dc generator is to

(A) Increase output voltage

(B) Reduce sparking at brushes

(C) Provide smoother output

(D) Convert the induced ac into dc



Answer: D

55. When transistors are used in digital circuits they usually operate in the:

(A) active region

(B) breakdown region

(C) saturation and cutoff regions

(D) linear region.



Answer: C

56. Which bus is bidirectional?

(A) data bus

(B) control bus

(C) address bus

(D) multiplexed bus



Answer: A

57. The diode schematic arrow points to the:

(A) trivalent-doped material

(B) positive axial lead

(C) anode lead

(D) cathode lead



Answer: D

58. Name the indian cricketer who scored consecutive centuries in first three matches?

(A) Muhammed Azharrudin

(B) Sachin Tendulkar

(C) Rahul Dravid

(D) Saurav Ganguly



Answer: A

59. Mirage is due to

(A) unequal heating of different parts of the atmosphere

(B) magnetic disturbances in the atmosphere

(C) depletion of ozone layer in the atmosphere

(D) equal heating of different parts of the atmosphere



Answer: A

60. Oil raise up the wick in a lamp. The principle involves

(A) the diffusion of oil through the wick

(B) the liquid state of oil

(C) capillary action phenomenon

(D) volatility of oil



Answer: C

61. Other than spreading malaria, anopheles mosquitoes are also vectors of

(A) dengue fever

(B) filariasis

(C) encephalitis

(D) yellow fever



Answer: B

62. Who co-founded Hotmail in 1996 and then sold the company to Microsoft?

(A) Shawn Fanning

(B) Ada Byron Lovelace

(C) Sabeer Bhatia

(D) Ray Tomlinson



Answer: C

63. What was the active medium used in the first working laser ever constructed?

(A) A diamond block

(B) Helium-neon gas

(C) A ruby rod

(D) Carbon dioxide gas



Answer: C

64. The slip speed of an induction motor depends upon:

(A) Armature current

(B) Supply voltage

(C) Mechanical load

(D) Eddy currents



Answer: C

65. Three times the first of three consecutive odd integers is 3 more than twice the third. The third integer is:

(A) 9

(B) 11

(C) 13

(D) 15



Answer: D

66. The product of two numbers is 120 and the sum of their squares is 289. The sum of the number is:

(A) 20

(B) 23

(C) 169

(D) None of these



Answer: B

67. There is 60% increase in an amount in 6 years at simple interest. What will be the compound interest of Rs. 12,000 after 3 years at the same rate?

(A) Rs. 2160

(B) Rs. 3120

(C) Rs. 3972

(D) Rs. 6240



Answer: C

68. Find the odd man out.

3, 5, 11, 14, 17, 21

(A) 21

(B) 17

(C) 14

(D) 3



Answer: C

69. Three unbiased coins are tossed. What is the probability of getting at most two heads?

(A) 3 \4

(B) 1 \4

(C) 3 \8

(D) 7 \8



Answer: D

70. What was the day of the week on 17th June, 1998?

(A) Monday

(B) Tuesday

(C) Wednesday

(D) Thursday



Answer: C

71. FAG, GAF, HAI, IAH, ____

(A) JAK

(B) HAL

(C) HAK

(D) JAI



Answer: A

72. The most commonly used bleaching agent is

(A) alcohol

(B) carbon dioxide

(C) chlorine

(D) sodium chlorine



Answer: C

73. Nuclear sizes are expressed in a unit named

(A) Fermi

(B) angstrom

(C) newton

(D) tesla



Answer: A

74. Preamble enshrines the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity - ideals inspired by the

(A) Russian Revolution

(B) Irish Revolution

(C) French Revolution

(D) US Constitution



Answer: C

75. Where is the Railway Staff College located?

(A) Pune

(B) Allahabad

(C) Vadodara

(D) Delhi



Answer: C

76. Normal adult human male has

(A) 10 gram of haemoglobin/100 gram of blood

(B) 14 gram of haemoglobin/100 gram of blood

(C) 18 gram of haemoglobin/100 gram of blood

(D) 24 gram of haemoglobin/100 gram of blood



Answer: B

77. The dynamic friction is the friction experienced by a body, when the body

(A) is in motion

(B) is at rest

(C) just begins to slide over the surface of the other body

(D) none of the above



Answer: A

78. In a centrifugal casting method

(A) core is made of sand

(B) core is made of ferrous metal

(C) core is made of non-ferrous metal

(D) no core is used



Answer: D

79. The ball bearings are provided with a cage

(A) to reduce friction

(B) to facilitate slipping of balls

(C) to prevent the lubricant from flowing out

(D) to maintain the balls at a fixed distance apart



Answer: D

80. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of 10 km/hr, he would have walked 20 km more. The actual distance travelled by him is:

(A) 50 km

(B) 56 km

(C) 70 km

(D) 80 km



Answer: A

81. Three partners shared the profit in a business in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. They had partnered for 14 months, 8 months and 7 months respectively. What was the ratio of their investments?

(A) 5 : 7 : 8

(B) 20 : 49 : 64

(C) 38 : 28 : 21

(D) None of these



Answer: B

82. Find the ratio in which rice at Rs. 7.20 a kg be mixed with rice at Rs. 5.70 a kg to produce a mixture worth Rs. 6.30 a kg.

(A) 1 : 3

(B) 2 : 3

(C) 3 : 4

(D) 4 : 5



Answer: B

83. In how many ways can the letters of the word 'LEADER' be arranged?

(A) 72

(B) 144

(C) 360

(D) 720



Answer: C

84. Railway tracks are banked on curves

(A) necessary centrifugal force may be obtained from the horizontal component weight of the train

(B) to avoid frictional force between the tracks and wheels

(C) necessary centripetal force may be obtained from the horizontal component of the weight of the train

(D) the train may not fly off in the opposite direction



Answer: C

85. A cistern of capacity 8000 litres measures externally 3.3 m by 2.6 m by 1.1 m and its walls are 5 cm thick. The thickness of the bottom is:

(A) 90 cm

(B) 10 cm

(C) 1 m

(D) 1.1 cm



Answer: B

86. Wrought iron contains carbon upto

(A) 0.25%

(B) 1.0%

(C) 1.5%

(D) 2%



Answer: A

87. An R.C.C column is treated as long if its slenderness ratio is greater than

(A) 30

(B) 35

(C) 40

(D) 50



Answer: D

88. The first woman in space was

(A) Valentina Tereshkova

(B) Sally Ride

(C) Naidia Comenci

(D) Tamara Press



Answer: A

89.National Archives is located at?

(A) Calcutta

(B) Dehradun

(C) Bombay

(D) New Delhi



Answer: D

90. The most electronegative element among the following is

(A) sodium

(B) bromine

(C) fluorine

(D) oxygen



Answer: C

91. The Himalayan mountain system belongs to which of the following?

(A) Volcanic mountains

(B) Residual mountains

(C) Block mountains

(D) Fold mountains



Answer: D

92. The neutral axis of the cross-section a beam is that axis at which the bending stress is

(A) zero

(B) minimum

(C) maximum

(D) infinity



Answer: A

93. A steel bar of 5 mm is heated from 15° C to 40° C and it is free to expand. The bar will induce

(A) no stress

(B) shear stress

(C) tensile stress

(D) compressive stress



Answer: A

94. The output will be a LOW for any case when one or more inputs are zero in a(n):

(A) OR gate

(B) NOT gate

(C) AND gate

(D) NAND gate



Answer: C

95. A tank is 25 m long, 12 m wide and 6 m deep. The cost of plastering its walls and bottom at 75 paise per sq. m, is:

(A) Rs. 456

(B) Rs. 458

(C) Rs. 558

(D) Rs. 568



Answer: C

96. A man's speed with the current is 15 km/hr and the speed of the current is 2.5 km/hr. The man's speed against the current is:

(A) 8.5 km/hr

(B) 9 km/hr

(C) 10 km/hr

(D) 12.5 km/hr



Answer: C

97. The greatest number of four digits which is divisible by 15, 25, 40 and 75 is:

(A) 9000

(B) 9400

(C) 9600

(D) 9800



Answer: C

98.The angle of elevation of a ladder leaning against a wall is 60 deg. and the foot of the ladder is 4.6 m away from the wall. The length of the ladder is:

(A) 2.3 m

(B) 4.6 m

(C) 7.8 m

(D) 9.2 m



Answer: D

99. The largest 4 digit number exactly divisible by 88 is:

(A) 9944

(B) 9768

(C) 9988

(D) 8888



Answer: A

100. A number when divided by 296 leaves 75 as remainder. When the same number is divided by 37, the remainder will be:

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 8

(D) 11

Answer: A

101. The last Mahakumbh of the 20th century was held at

(A) Nasik

(B) Ujjain

(C) Allahabad

(D) Haridwar



Answer : D

102. 'Nature never did betray the heart that loved her' is a quotation from

(A) W.Wordsworth

(B) J.Brayon

(C) P.B.Shelly

(D) J.Keats



Answer: A

103. Programs designed to perform specific tasks is called known as

(A) System software

(B) Application software

(C) Utility programs

(D) Operating system



Answer: B

104. Mercury is commonly used as a thermometric fluid rather than water because

(A) specific heat of mercury is less than water

(B) specific heat of mercury is more than water

(C) mercury has greater visibility than water

(D) density of mercury is more than the water



Answer: A

105: The absorption of ink by blotting paper involves

(A) viscosity of ink

(B) capillary action phenomenon

(C) diffusion of ink through the blotting

(D) siphon action



Answer: B

106. The liquid limit and plastic limit exist in

(A) sandy soils

(B) silty soils

(C) gravel soils

(D) clay soils.



Answer: D

107. Yard is to inch as quart is to

(A) gallon

(B) ounce

(C) milk

(D) liquid



Answer: B

108: JAK, KBL, LCM, MDN, _____

(A) OEP

(B) NEO

(C) MEN

(D) PFQ



Answer: B

109. A circle will appear on an isometric drawing as a(n) __________ .

(A) ellipse

(B) cycloid

( C) circle

( D) parabola



Answer: A

110. Which type of output device creates images which look and feel like photographs?

( A) Electrostatic plotter

(B) Laser printer

(C) Dye-sublimation printer

(D) Inkjet plotter



Answer: C

111. All of the following are variables involved in the use of image planes, except:

(A) the object being viewed

(B) the size of the object

(C) the eye of the viewer

(D) the image plane



Answer: B

112. Which of the following object gives a circular section, when it is cut completely by a section plane (irrespective of the angle of the section plane)

(A) Cylinder

(B) Sphere

(C) Cone

(D) Circular lamina



Answer: B

113. The OR, XOR & AND functions can be performed by _____ of the computer in a CPU.

(A) ALU

(B) CU

(C) Memory

(D) Register



Answer: A

114. The treaty of Srirangapatna was signed between Tipu Sultan and

(A) Robert Clive

(B) Cornwallis

(C) Dalhousie

(D) Warren Hastings



Answer: B

115. 'Madhubani', a style of folk paintings, is popular in which of the following states in India?

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Rajasthan

(C) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Bihar



Answer: D

116. The working language(s) of the UNESCO is/are

(A) French only

(B) English only

(C) English and French

(D) English, French and Russian



Answer: C

117. If log 27 = 1.431, then the value of log 9 is:

(A) 0.934

(B) 0.945

(C) 0.954

(D) 0.958



Answer : C

118. If 0.75 : x :: 5 : 8, then x is equal to:

(A) 1.12

(B) 1.2

(C) 1.25

(D) 1.30



Answer: B

119. The population of a town increased from 1,75,000 to 2,62,500 in a decade. The average percent increase of population per year is:

(A) 4.37%

(B) 5%

(C) 6%

(D) 8.75%



Answer: B

120: The method that cannot be used for removing permanent hardness of water is

(A) adding sodium carbonate

(B) distillation

(C) adding caustic soda

(D) boiling



Answer: D

121. The most electropositive elements among the following is

(A) Na

(B) Ca

(C) K

(D) Cs



Answer: D

122. Natural radioactivity was discovered by

(A) Marie Curie

(B) Ernest Rutherfor

(C) Henri Becquerel

(D) Enrico Fermi



Answer: C

123. RADAR is used for

(A) locating submerged submarines

(B) receiving a signals in a radio receiver

(C) locating geostationary satellites

(D) detecting and locating the position of objects such as aeroplanes



Answer: D

124. Moist curing of the exposed surfaces of concrete is done at least for

(A) 3 days

(B) 5 days

(C) 7 days

(D) 14 days



Answer : C

125. A style in which a writer makes a display of his knowledge

(A) Pedantic

(B) Verbose

(C) Pompous

(D) Ornate



Answer : A

126. Which women’s safety app has been launched by Indian Railways, recently?

(A)R-Sahayak

(B)R-Jagruk

(C)R-Mitra

(D)R-Sahyog



Answer: C

127. The unit of flux density is known as

(A) magnetomotive force

(B) a weber

(C) a maxwell

(D) a tesla



Answer: D

128. In a class B push-pull amplifier, the transistors are biased slightly above cutoff to avoid

(A) crossover distortion

(B) unusually high efficiency

(C) negative feedback

(D) a low input impedance



Answer: A

129. A single-phase induction motor

(A) is self-starting

(B) operates at a fixed speed

(C) is less reliable than a three-phase synchronous motor

(D) none of the above



Answer: D

130. Which semiconductor material is made from coal ash?

(A) germanium

(B) silicon

(C) tin

(D) carbon



Answer: A

131. The ratio of strengths of solid to hollow shafts, both having outside diameter D and hollow having inside diameter D/2, in torsion, is

(A) 1/4

(B) 1/2

(C) 1/16

(D) 15/16



Answer: D

132. In a loaded beam, the point of contraflexture occurs at a section where

(A) bending moment is minimum

(B) bending moment is zero or changes sign

(C) bending moment is maximum

(D) shearing force is maximum



Answer: B

133. The temperature at which the new grains are formed in the metal is called

(A) lower critical temperature

(B) upper critical temperature

(C) eutectic temperature

(D) recrystallisation temperature



Answer: D

134. The operation of cutting of a flat sheet to the desired shape is called

(A) shearing

(B) piercing

(C) punching

(D) blanking



Answer: D

135. The subcooling in a refrigeration cycle

(A) does not alter C.O.P.

(B) increases C.O.P.

(C) decreases C.O.P.

(D) none of these



Answer: B

136. 8 liters are drawn from a cask full of wine and is then filled with water. This operation is performed three more times. The ratio of the quantity of wine now left in cask to that of water is 16 : 65. How much wine did the cask hold originally?

(A) 18 liters

(B) 24 liters

(C) 32 liters

(D) 42 liters



Answer: B

137. A towel, when bleached, was found to have lost 20% of its length and 10% of its breadth. The percentage of decrease in area is:

(A) 10%

(B) 10.08%

(C) 20%

(D) 28%



Answer: D

138. In a 500 m race, the ratio of the speeds of two contestants A and B is 3 : 4. A has a start of 140 m. Then, A wins by:

(A) 60 m

(B) 40 m

(C) 20 m

(D) 10 m



Answer: C

139. The material which can be deformed permanently by heat and pressure is called a

(A) thermoplastic

(B) thermoset

(C) chemical compound

(D) polymer



Answer: B

140. What is the alternative name for a diskette?

(A) Floppy disk

(B) Hard disk

(C) Flexible disk

(D) Winchester disk



Answer: A

141. The first computer used to store a program

(A) EDSAC

(B) ENIAC

(C) EDVAC

(D) ACE



Answer: A

142. Which of the following has recently acquired Bengaluru-based HomeBuy360?

(A) Housing.com

(B) SoftBank

(C) Indian Real Estate Forum (IREF)

(D) None of the above



Answer: A

143. Nymph is the name of young one of

(A) butterfly

(B) beetle

(C) housefly

(D) cockroach



Answer: D

144. The oldest rocks in India are reported from

(A) Dharwar region, Karnataka

(B) Aravalli range, Rajasthan

(C) Vindhyan range, Madhya Pradesh

(D) Siwalik range, Punjab



Answer: A

145. After the first photons of light are produced, which process is responsible for amplification of the light?

(A) Blackbody radiation

(B) Stimulated emission

(C) Planck's radiation

(D) Einstein oscillation



Answer: B

146. Who is known as Bismarck of India?

(A) Mahatma Gandhi

(B) Vallabhai Pattel

(C) Nethaji Subash Chandra Bose

(D) Bhagath Singh



Answer: B

147. Bending of rail ends due to loose packing under a joint and loose fish Bolts, is known

(A) buckling

(B) hogging

(C) creeping

(D) none of these.



Answer: B

148. The hardness of steel increases if it contains

(A) pearlite

(B) ferrite

(C) cementite

(D) martensite



Answer: D

149. Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, "He is the son of the only son of my mother." How is Suresh related to that boy?

(A) Brother

(B) Uncle

(C) Cousin

(D) Father



Answer: D

150. Unit of kinematic viscosity is

(A) m2/sec

(B) Newton sec/m2

(C) Newton sec/m3

(D) Kg sec/m2.



Answer: A
This free mock test question paper is from the rrb official sites and answer keys are prepared by  Exam Shouters members. Thanks to all and have a good luck for your rrb examinations 2015.
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