5 May 2020

MEO Class 4 Motor (EKM) Written Questions and Answers Paper-1


Welcome to Exam Shouters and you are going to see MEO Class 4 Motor written questions and answers here. Class IV Motor written paper is also called as Marine Engineering Knowledge (Motor). EKM (Engineering Knowledge Motor) is short name of the written exam paper. Here, you can see real MEO Class 4 objective question papers with their solutions. You have to go through each questions for learning Marine Engineering Knowledge (EKM) paper. If you have any doubts feel free to comment us.
MEO Class 4 Motor (EKM) Written Questions and Answers Paper-1



MEOMarine Engineering Officer; COCCertificate of Competency

MEO Class 4 Motor Written question paper is part of MEO exam or COC exam conducted by DG Shipping of India. Mercantile Marine department is carrying out the MEO Exam for various engineering officers positions like Class 4, Class 2 and Class 1 Engineers. For MEO Class 4 exam contains two parts; 6 written papers and 4 orals papers. You can apply for Class 4 exam after meeting eligibility requirements. 

Here, I am going to share Motor (EKM) paper of MEO Class 4 objective questions and answers. These are the previously asked Class 4 written exam questions from 2013 – 2018. Most of them are repeating in consecutive years of written exams. So, by referring these motor written question papers, you can easily crack the questions.

Recommend: You have to do around 500 questions for each of the MEO class 4 exam papers. It will helps to get cracking the Class IV written exam easily.

MEO Class 4 Motor (EKM) Objective Questions and Answers


It contains previously asked 50 motor objective questions. Scroll down to bottom to get answers.

1. The lube oil pump used in a diesel engine is a

A. volute pump
B. centrifugal pump 
C. diaphragm pump 
D. gear pump

2. Shaft tunnel requires

a) Drain
b) Escape trunk
c) Water tight door
d) All the above

3. Modern marine turbochargers use a ___________ type of compressor

A. Radial flow
B. Axial flow
C. Mixed flow
D. Turbulent flow

4. Which of these fuel oil impurities can cause maximum abrasive damage?

A. Water
B. Ash
C. Catalytic fines
D. Sodium

5. Labyrinth seal fitted on the back surface of a compressor wheel of a turbocharger:

A. Prevents bearing lube oil contamination
B. Prevents bearing lube oil being sucked into the air stream
C. Helps to keep the shaft cool by controlled leakage of air
D. None of the above

6. Exhaust Grouping is required in case of ______________ turbocharging in order to -

A. Constant pressure, prevents shockwave generation 
B. Pulse pressure, prevent interference with scavenging of other cylinders
C. Constant pressure, prevent interference with scavenging of other cylinders
D. Pulse pressure, prevents shockwave generation

7. In modern marine 2-stroke diesel engines, ________________ is sometimes used as a
Coating on the underside of the exhaust valve disc, to reduce the rate of hot corrosion.

A. Monel
B. Chromium
C. Inconel
D. Cermet

8. If the boiler tubes are scaled on the water side then

A. Heat conduction through the tubes will be very high leading to rapid evaporation
B. The boiler furnace can get damaged due to excessive temperatures
C. The surface of the tube will be overheated as heat transfer is impaired
D. The natural circulation of water within the boiler will be more efficient

9. Sudden stop of diesel engine (multiple choices) 

A. air in system 
B. water in system
C. air filter chocked
D. water in air filter

10. How is the concentration of dissolved oxygen in the feed water of an auxiliary boiler maintained at acceptable limits?

A. Feed water is cycled through a DC heater.
B. Feed water is treated with phosphates.
C. Oxygen is liberated in the three-stages of feed water preheating.
D. Oxygen is liberated by maintaining the highest practical feed water temperature

11. In a bypass type filtering system for a medium or high speed diesel engine, the lube oil bypassing the filter

A. returns directly to the suction side of the pump
B. returns directly to the sump
C. flows to the engine bearings
D. flows through a second-stage strainer, reheater, and returns to the sump

12. Which of the following statements is true, about slow speed engines?

A. A scavenge fire can lead to a crankcase explosion
B. A scavenge fire can lead to deformation of diaphragm plate
C. A scavenge fire can lead to damage to tie rods.
D. All of the above.

13. A large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine uses sea water to directly cool the

A. cylinder heads
B. exhaust valves
C. scavenging air
D. injectors

14. In a 2-stroke marine diesel engine if the o-ring for Jacket cooling water sealing is leaking then

A. The water will leak directly into the crankcase
B. The water will leak into the under piston space
C. The water will come out through tell-tale hole provided between the two o-rings
D. The water will come out from the top of cylinder jacket

15. Irregular circumferential wear of liner due to diminishing neutralizing capacity of cylinder oil away from lubricating holes is known as:

A. Micro seizure
B. Scuffing
C. Scoring
D. Clover leafing

16. The muffling of exhaust gas noise in 4 stroke auxiliary engines in achieved by (Multiple Choices)

A. Allowing the gas to expand.
B. Change the direction of their flow.
C. Cool the gas with injected water.
D. Cool the gas with scavenge air.

17. Any steering gear system alarm can only be successfully acknowledged from

A. The bridge
B. The engine control room
C. The steering compartment
D. The ship's office

18. To avoid the engine running too long on critical speed during startup it is necessary to

A. Start at speeds above critical speed.
B. Start at speeds just below critical speed and quickly move across the critical speed.
C. Start at maximum speed and quickly bring down to just above critical speed.
D. Eliminate totally the hazards of critical speed by ignoring it.

19. Some 4-stroke engines are fitted with a rotorcap on the cylinder head valves. For what reason?

A. Rotate the inlet valve during operation.
B. Distribute the exhaust gas or the air inlet better to improve combustion.
C. Improve the scaling surface function, increase the service time of the exhaust valve in the engine
D. To prevent the valve spindle from sticking

20. What do you mean by surge limit of a turbocharger?

A. Characteristic curve of a turbocharger
B. Portion of compressor characteristic curve which lies on the left side of the point of maximum pressure
C. A line joining all the points of maximum pressure on compressor characteristic curves , drawn at various speeds of operation

21. The advantage of tie rods over an engine without tie rods is that:

A. The engine is very easily aligned after any misalignment has taken place between different components of the engine
B. The engine doesn’t require thrust pads for transmission of thrust to the ship’s hull as the same is being taken care of by the tie rods
C. The engine components are much lighter leading in overall reduction is engine weight with a high power generation with the elimination of fatigue stresses
D. There are no advantages of engines with tie rods, because tie rods require regular maintenance and replacement like connecting rods and overall engine becomes more expensive to operate

22. It is a known fact that centrifugal pumps require priming for pumping liquids, as they cannot handle air and will lose suction due to air entry . But on the other hand T/Cs use centrifugal compressors for supercharging. Which of the following do you think makes a centrifugal compressor to pump air and behave differently than the centrifugal pumps?

A. Presence of air cooler
B. Presence of Labyrinth seal
C. High speed of rotation, very fine internal clearances and large impeller diameters
D. Difference in principle of operation

23. If the combustion control system of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler fails to sustain burner ignition after a normal shutdown, you should check for a/an

A. faulty photocell detector
B. low steam pressure
C. high voltage on the ignition electrode
D. open air damper

24. What is meant by elastohydrodynamic lubrication?

A. Formation of hydrodynamic film under high pressure with minor elastic deformation of mating surfaces, distributing load over a greater area
B. Addition of extreme pressure additive (EP) to the lubricant
C. Addition of Viscosity index improvement additive
D. Addition of elastomer based additives

25. Which of the following statements is false?

A. Oxidation of lubricant leads to decrease in its viscosity
B. Formation of oxidation acids, sulfuric acid leads to depletion of TBN of lubricant
C. Contamination with water will lead to decrease in the load carrying capacity of a lubricant.
D. Buildup of insolubles will lead to increase in viscosity of a lubricant

26. Which of the following is a reasonable statement about water washing of turbine side of a T/C ?

A. It leads to thermal shock and reduces the life of the T/C
B. It leads to thermal shock and not so effective as solid washing
C. If properly carried out keeping rpm, load, temperature limits & other factors into account; it is quite safe and more effective than solid washing
D. It should never be carried out as most of the engine manufacturers recommend against the same

27. Fins are installed on the generating tube surfaces in waste heat boilers to

(A) Prevent soot fires in the exhaust system
(B) Prevent exhaust gas erosion of the tubes
(C) Increase the velocity of exhaust gas flow
(D) Increase the rate of heat transfer

28. Which of the following conditions is responsible for the fuel oil to atomize when using a steam atomizer in an auxiliary boiler?

A. Expansion of the steam in the furnace.
B. Expansion of the steam in the whirling chamber.
C. Expansion of the steam in the orifice plate.
D. All of the above.

29. After prolonged operation, jerk type fuel pumps wear on the top edge of plunger and edges of spill ports and helix due to erosion by high pressure fuel as it spills. This wear would result in

A. Late start of injection and early end of injection
B. Early start of injection and late end of injection
C. Early start of injection and early end of injection
D. Late start of injection and late end of injection

30. Which standards govern the specifications for supply of Residual Marine Fuels and
Distillate Marine Fuels onboard merchant ships?

A. ISO 3012:1999
B. ISO 3648:1996
C. ISO 8216-1:2010
D. ISO 8217:2010

31. The purpose of an air cooler in a supercharging system is to:

A. Reduce temperature of supercharged air in order to condense and remove maximum possible moisture from the air prior entry to the engine
B. Reduce the temperature of the supercharged air in order to increase the density & also to cool down below dew point to remove moisture from air prior entry to the engine
C. Cool supercharged air to increase its density such that the dew point is not reached to avoid entry of moisture into the engine 
D. Cool supercharged air to increase its density and also to keep the peak temperature and exhaust gas temperature within limits

32. Which of the following is a disadvantage of water as cooling medium for pistons, when compared to oil?

A. Chemical treatment is required
B. Higher thermal stresses in piston
C. Piston of more complicated design
D. All of the above

33. Where boiler point temp high?

A) Riser
B) Superheater
C) Primary steam drum
D) Secondary steam drum

34. Which of the following statements correctly describes the phenomenon of surging in a
2-stroke crosshead type engine? 

A. Due to sudden increase in engine load the exhaust gases may flow back through scavenge ports causing surge
B. Due to sudden decrease in engine load the turbocharger pressure ratio drops. This causes high pressure downstream of T/C in scavenge trunk causing flow reversal of scavenge air
C. Due to sudden increase in engine load, the T/C turbine rpm may increase suddenly increasing the compressor pressure ratio to surge
D. Due to sudden decrease in engine load, the turbocharger may stall as the higher pressure downstream in exhaust system may cause reversal of flow of exhaust gases

35. Steam temperature control for the ESD-II boiler is achieved by:

A. Fitting a de-superheater between 1st & 2nd passes of superheater
B. Fitting an attemperator between 1st & 2nd passes of superheater
C. Gas dampers in boiler uptake
D. Bypassing the superheater

36. The coating which is provided on the valve stem of exhaust valves of modern marine diesel engines is of:

A. Nickel
B. Stellite
C. Chromium
D. Nimonic

37. ESD stands for which type of boiler

A. External superheater D-type
B. Emergency shutdown Boiler
C. Extreme Superheat type
D. External Superheat De-superheater type

38. In comparison to exhaust valves, intake valves of diesel engines may be fabricated from low-alloy steels because

A. the beveled edges of the intake valves provide forself-centering during seating
B. intake valves utilize stellite-coated valve seat insertswhich reduce wear
C. the volume of air passing through intake valves is less than the volume of air passing through exhaust valves
D. intake valves are less affected to the corrosive action of exhaust gases

39. Why is it essential to renew turbocharger bearings after a preset number of hours of running even if the bearings are in seemingly perfect condition?

A. Because they are prone to failure due to prolonged exposure to high temperature conditions.
B. Because they are subject to cyclic loading and are prone to failure due to metal fatigue.
C. It is not essential to renew if condition monitoring suggests perfect condition.
D. Lube oil contamination is bound to occur and affect the condition of the bearings.

40. To check the setting of the over speed trip on a diesel powered generator, you would use a

A. tachometer
B. torsion meter
C. dynamometer
D. pony brake

41. Which of the following is an example of a solid bearing?

A. Piston pin bushing
B. Turbo-generator turbine bearing
C. Spring bearing
D. Thrust bearing

42. Function of a de-superheater is to.

A. Protect superheater from overheat
B. Control superheater steam outlet temperature
C. Increase the efficiency of the boiler
D. Reduce steam temperature for auxiliary uses after steam superheater

43. Which of the following specifications/qualities of cylinder oils counter corrosive wear?

A. Viscosity
B. TBN 
C. Detergency 
D. Specific gravity

44. Marine boilers burning H.F.O. face a problem of cold corrosion due to high sulphur content. The minimum flue gas temperature within any boiler part is kept above due point of H2SO4. The actual dew point of H2SO4 in flue gases depends on the:

A. Boiler furnace temperature
B. Ambient air temperature
C. Boiler operating pressure
D. HFO sulphur content and moisture in combustion air

45. If an operating auxiliary boiler has a water pH reading of 7, you should

A. bottom blow the boiler
B. treat the water with caustic soda 
C. treat the water with chemical scavengers 
D. reduce the water alkalinity to recommended readings

46. For a two stroke engine two o-rings are provided on the liner. The function of the top
o-ring is to ___________ and function of the lower o-ring is to ____________

A. Seal jacket cooling water; act as secondary seal in case 1st o-ring leaks
B. Seal jacket cooling water, Seal scavenge air
C. Seal scavenge air, Seal Jacket cooling water
D. Seal combustion gases, Seal jacket cooling water

47. In case of 2-stroke marine diesel engines, the top part of the liner forming the combustion chamber experiences very high pressure induced mechanical stresses as well as high thermal stresses. Which of the following is a correctly designed liner for catering both the above stresses?

A. Thick top portion with jacket cooling to take care of both the high mechanical and thermal stresses
B. Thick top portion to take care of high mechanical stresses while bore cooling to reduce thermal gradients
C. Thin top portion to reduce thermal gradients and hence thermal stresses while supporting ribs to take care of mechanical stresses
D. Thick top portion to take care of high mechanical stresses with jacket cooling combined with allowance for thermal expansion to minimize the thermal stresses

48. Crank web deflection readings will give a positive indication of

A. worn main bearing journals
B. torsional stress deformation
C. slack thrust bearings
D. bearing shells shim dimensions

49. Prior to lighting off a cold automatically fired auxiliary boiler, you should

A. check and regulate the water level
B. close the air cock once fires are lit
C. blow down the gage glass
D. crack the steam stop to assure protective steam flow

50. Sudden stop of diesel engine (Multiple Choices) 

A. air in system 
B. water in system
C. air filter chocked
D. water in air filter


Share:

30 Sept 2015

BIS Mechanical Mock Test Question Papers 2015 with Keys

bis mechanical question papers free downloads

Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is National standard body of India, which is Govt. of India owned organization under the administrative control of ministry of Consumer affairs, Food and public Distributions. The main activates of BIS are Standardization, Product and System Certifications, Hallmarking of Gold/Silver Jewellery, Laboratory testing and certifications at international level etc. This post contains the BIS mechanical mock test question papers 2015 and free downloads its answerkey.

Before going to BIS Mechanical Mock test question papers 2015, you should know about the BIS examination questions pattern. The BIS online exam contains 200 objective questions and you need to complete within 120 minutes (2 hours). All objective questions carry one marks. The questions are divided in 4 parts of 50 questions such as Technical Knowledge of concerned discipline, Quantitative aptitude, Reasoning and English language. There is negative marks penalty for wrong answers.  The BIS mechanical mock test question paper 2015 is follows the same pattern of BIS previous year question papers.

This is BIS Mock test paper 2015 and you should try to answer it.

Answerkeys are published soon!

BIS Mechanical Mock Test Question Papers 2015

PART A


Directions: In questions 1 to 5, groups of four words are given.  In each group one word is correctly spelt word.


1. (A) silhouete

(B) muncipality

(C) millennium

(D) inaguration

Answer: C

2. (A) kaledoscope

(B) Appolo

(C) condecent

(D) conscience

Answer: B

3. (A) conveyence

(B) audiance

(C) cucummber

(D) curriculum

Answer: D

4. (A) certainity

(B) haemoglobin

(C) helenism

(D) halucination

Answer: D

5. (A) hierarchy

(B) hemorrage

(C) pediatrician

(D) pulmonary

Answer: A

Directions: In the following passage (6 to 15) some of the words have been left out. First read passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.

The martyrs who ..(6).. down their lives for freedom of the country had a ...(7).. vision of the future. They wanted the nation to be free from all the slavery and ..(8)… They wanted an India in which all the communities would live in ..(9).. harmony and in which there would be no high class and no low class of people, the ..(10).. of untouchability having been wiped out completely. Women would enjoy equal rights with men and ..(11).. their fullest to the making of a great nation. Such a vision was in ..(12).. with the ancient glory of the country renowned for its splendid achievements in literature, art and culture . We must now..(13).. this ancient culture of ours with tolerance as its masthead. If we forget or cease to take pride in our noble heritage, we shall have to face severe..(14).. in the court of history which is ruthless judge and seldom ..(15).. the erring people.

6. (A) put

(B) set

(C) laid

(D) paid

Answer: C

7. (A) lofty

(B) bleak

(C) myopic

(D) full

Answer: A

8. (A) bound

(B) bondage

(C) yoke

(D) intolerance

Answer: B

9. (A) decent

(B) quiet

(C) quite

(D) perfect

Answer: D

10. (A) course

(B) dirt

(C) curse

(D) means

Answer: C

11. (A) compromise

(B) contrive

(C) contribute

(D) commit

Answer: C

12. (A) keeping

(B) doing

(C) pursuing

(D) developing

Answer: A

13. (A) rediscover

(B) revitalize

(C) replenish

(D) reinvent

Answer: B

14. (A) punishment

(B) censure

(C) beating

(D) indictment

Answer: D

15. (A) saves

(B) spares

(C) praises

(D) likes

Answer: B

Directions: In question Nos. 16 to 20, some words of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and choose appropriate letter (A), (B) or (C). Choose letter (D) if the sentence is free from errors.

16. I rose the child (A) /, which had fallen, off the ground (B)/ and consoled it (C).

Answer: A

17. Tell me (A)/ when you usually (B)/ go shopping (C).

Answer: C

18. How many (A)/ children do (B)/ Annie have?(C).

Answer: B

19. Please close the door (A)/ as quiet as (B)/ you can (C).

Answer: B

20. Can you recall back the time (A)/ when we stayed (B)/ ath the hostel? (C).

Answer: A

Directions: In question Nos 21 to 25, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word from the suggestions.

21. Ordered over a month ago, the books are …… to arrive any day now.

(A) anticipated

(B) hoped

(C) expected

(D) wished

Answer: C

22. I have told him that he had better ….. his dog always tied to the stake.

(A) keep

(B) kept

(C) keeping

(D) to keep

Answer: A

23. The beach would be an ideal place for visitors if …… not so crowded.

(A) it was

(B) it were

(C) it had

(D) it is

Answer: B

24.  Hadn’t the witness turned …….., she would have won the case.

(A) hospitable

(B) host

(C) hostile

(D) hosted

Answer: C

25. He is commited to ……. Us in times of need.

(A) help

(B) have helped

(C) helpful

(D) helping

Answer: D

Directions: In question Nos. 26 to 30, out of four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

26. Fragile

(A) Weak

(B) bright

(C) thin

(D) resistant

Answer: A

27. Dainty

(A) clumpsy

(B) strong

(C) rough

(D) elegant

Answer: D

28. Genial

(A) dismal

(B) pleasant

(C) affluent

(D) genuine

Answer: B

29. Inevitable

(A) probable

(B) liable

(C) unavoidable

(D) formidable

Answer: C

30. Placid

(A) dull

(B) calm

(C) interesting

(D) clear

Answer: B



Directions: In question Nos. 31 to 35, out of four alternatives, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

31. Fictious

(A) real

(B) imaginative

(C) fancy

(D) foreign

Answer: A

32. Accelerate

(A) check

(B) control

(C) slacken

(D) expedite

Answer: C

33. Authentic

(A) old

(B) fake

(C) new

(D) genuine

Answer: B

34. Feasibility

(A) unsuitability

(B) Impropriety

(C) cheapness

(D) impracticability

Answer: D

35. Delectable

(A) nice

(B)  tasty

(C) unsavoury

(D) heavy

Answer: C



Directions: Choose the alternative which best express the meaning of the  idiom/ phrase.

36. A tall story

(A) an unbelievable story

(B) an indecent story

(C) a fine story

(D) an exhaustive narration

 Answer: A

37. A white elephant

(A) a thing of beauty

(B) an expensive, useless object

(C) a decorative piece

(D) a wild animal

Answer: B

38. To cry wolf

(A) to cry in vain

(B) to shout at a high pitch

(C) to waste time

(D) to call for help unnecessarily

Answer: D

39. To kiss the dust

(A) to be humble

(B) to beat aperson

(C) to suffer utter defeat

(D) to pray

Answer: C

40. To burry the hatchet

(A) to end hostilities

(B) to miss one’s tools

(C) to wound a person

(D) to do away with someone

Answer: A



Directions: In Questions Nos 41 to 45, a sentence is given, which/ a part of which may need improvement. Choose the correct improvement from the options.

41. But for you help, I would not finish the work in time.

(A) But for you help, I will not finish the work in time.

(B) But for you help, I would not have finished the work in time.

(C) But for you help, I could not finish the work in time.

(D) No improvement

Answer: B

42. He is a man with whom I find it difficult to associate with.

(A) He is a man with who I find it difficult to associate with.

(B) He is a man with whom I find difficulty in associating with.

(C) He is a man who I find it difficult to associate with.

(D) No improvement

Answer: C

43. He both lost his money and his passport.

(A) He lost both his money and his passport.

(B) He lost his money and his passport both.

(C) He lost his both money and his passport.

(D) No improvement

Answer:  A

44. These farms are in danger to be taken over by the railways.

(A) These farms are in danger of taken over by the railways.

(B) These farms are in danger to being taken over by the railways.

(C) These farms are in danger to be taken by the railways.

(D) No improvement

Answer: B

45. Gandhiji insisted on our wearing khadi clothes.

(A) Gandhiji insisted our wearing khadi clothes.

(B) Gandhiji insisted to our wearing khadi clothes.

(C) Gandhiji insisted us to wear khadi clothes.

(D) No improvement

Answer: D

Directions: In question Nos 46 to 50, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word or sentence.

46. The animals of a certain region

(A) flora

(B) fauna

(C) wild life

(D) forest

Answer: B

47. One who pretends to be what he is not

(A) cynic

(B) snob

(C) hypocrite

(D) dictator

Answer: C

48. One who doubts whether God exists

(A) theist

(B) atheist

(C) apostate

(D) agonistic

Answer:D

49. The science of the study of the old age

(A) geriatrics

(B) gerontology

(C) gastroenteritis

(D) ornithology

Answer: 

50. A writer who steals ideas from another writer or work

(A) hack writer

(B) anonymous

(C) plagiarist

(D) copywriter

Answer: C


PART B


51. Three different containers contain 496 litres, 403 litres and 713 litres of mixtures of milk and water respectively. What biggest measure can measure all the different quantities exactly?

(A) 1 litre

(B) 7 litres

(C) 31 litres

(D) 41 litres

Answer: C

52. 4.036 .04 = ?

(A) 1.009                     (B) 10.09                     (C) 100.9                                 (D) 1009

(A) 1.009

(B) 10.09

(C) 100.9

(D) 1009

Answer: C

53. If a*b = 2a- 3b + ab, then 3*5 +5*3 is equal to

(A) 22

(B) 24

(C) 26

(D) 28

Answer: A

54. A total of 324 coins of 20 paise and 25 paise make a sum of Rs.71. The number of 25 paise coins is:

(A) 120

(B) 124

(C) 144

(D) 200

Answer: B

55. If x = and y = , then the value of (x2+y2) is :

(A) 10

(B) 13

(C) 14

(D) 15

Answer: C

56. A cricketer has a certain average for 10 innings. In the eleventh inning, he scored 108 runs, thereby increasing his average by 6 runs. His new average is:

(A) 48

(B) 52

(C) 55

(D) 60

Answer: A

57. The sum of two numbers is 25 and their difference is 13. Find their product.

(A) 104

(B) 114

(C) 315

(D) 325

Answer: B

58. A is two years older than B who is twice as old as C. If the totalof the ages of A,B and C be 27, then how old is B?

(A) 7

(B) 8

(C) 9

(D) 10

Answer: D

59. If 5a = 3125, then the value of 5(a-3) is:

(A) 25

(B) 125

(C) 625

(D) 1625

Answer: A

60. A scored 30% marks and failed by 15 marks. B scored 40% marks and obtain 35 marks more than those required to pass. The pass percentage is:

(A) 33%

(B) 38%

(C) 43%

(D) 46%

Answer: A

61. By selling 12 toffees for a rupee, a man losses 20%. How many for a rupee should he sell to get a gain of 20% ?

(A) 5

(B) 8

(C) 10

(D) 15

Answer: B

62. The ratio of three numbers is 3:4:5 and the sum of their squares is 1250. The sum of the numbers is:

(A) 30

(B) 50

(C) 60

(D) 90

Answer: C

63. A and B started a business with initial investments in the ratio 14 : 15 and their annual profits were in the ratio 7:6. If A invested the money for 10 months, for how many months did B invest his money?

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 8

(D) 9

Answer: C

64. In a camp there is a meal for 120 men or 200 children. If 150 children have taken the meal, how many men eill be catered to with the remaining meal?

(A) 20

(B) 30

(C) 40

(D) 50

Answer: B

65. A and B can do a work in 8 days, B and C can do the same work in 12 days. A, B and C together can finish it in 6 days. A and C together will do it in:

(A) 4 days

(B) 6 days

(C) 8 days

(D) 12 days

Answer: C

66. 12 buckets of water fill a tank when the capacity of each tank is 13.5 litres. How many buckets will be needed to fill the same tank, if the capacity of each bucket is 9 litres ?

(A) 8

(B) 15

(C) 16

(D) 18

Answer: D

67. A is faster than B. A and B each walk 24 km. The sum of their speeds is 7 kmph and the sum of times taken by them is 14 hours. Then A’s speed in kmph is equal to:

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(C) 7

Answer: B

68. A train crosses a platform 100 m long in 60 seconds at a speed of 45 kmph. The time taken by the train to cross an electric pole is :

(A) 8 seconds

(B) 52 seconds

(C) 1 minute

(D) 1.5 minutes

Answer: B

69. 8 litres are drawn from a cask full of wine and is then filled with water. This operation is performed three more times. The ratio of the quantity of wine now left in cask to that of the water is 16:65. How much wine in litres did the cask hold originally?

(A) 18

(B) 24

(C) 32

(D) 42

Answer: B

70. A motor boat, whose speed is 15 kmph in still water goes 30 km downstream and comes back in a total of 4 hours 30 minutes. The speed of the stream in kmph is

(A) 4

(B) 5

(C) 6

(D) 10

Answer: B

71. Divide Rs. 2379 into 3 parts so that their amounts after 2,3 and 4 years respectively may be equal, the rate of interest being 5% per annum at simple interest. The first part is:

(A) Rs. 759

(B) Rs. 600

(C) Rs. 818

(D) Rs. 828

Answer: C

72. The effective annual rate of interest corresponding to a nominal rate of 6% per annum payable half yearly is

(A) 6.06%

(B) 6.07%

(C) 6.08%

(D) 6.09%

Answer: D

73. An error of 2% in excess is made while measuring the side of a square. The percentage of error in the calculated area of the square is

(A) 2%

(B) 2.02%

(C) 4%

(D) 4.04%

Answer: D

74. The perimeter of a rhombus is 56 m and its height is 5 m. its area in sq.m is :

(A) 64

(B) 70

(C) 78

(D) 84

Answer: B

75. The volume of largest right circular cone that can be cut out of a cube of edge 7 cm is:

(A) 13.6 cm3

(B) 89.8 cm3

(C) 121 cm3

(D) 147.68 cm3

Answer: B

76. The calendar for the 2007 will be the same for the year:

(A) 2014

(B) 2016

(C) 2017

(D) 2018

Answer: D

77. At 3.40, the hour hand and the minute hand of the clock form an angle of:

(A) 1200

(B) 1250

(C) 1300

(D) 1350

Answer: C

78. A man invested Rs. 1552 in a stock at 97 to obtain an income of Rs. 128. The dividend from the stock is:

(A) 7.5%

(B) 8%

(C) 9.7%

(D) none of these

Answer: B

79. In how many ways can a group of 5 men and 2 women e made out of a total of 7 men and 3 women ?

(A) 63

(B) 90

(C) 126

(D) 45

Answer: A

80. A speaks truth in 75% cases and B in 80% of the cases. In what percentage of cases are they likely contradict each other, narrating the same incident ?

(A) 5%

(B) 15%

(C) 35%

(D) 45%

Answer: C

81. The present worth of Rs. 1404 due in two equal half – yearly instalments at 8 % per annum simple interest is:

(A) Rs. 1325

(B) Rs.1300

(C) Rs. 1350

(D) Rs. 1500

Answer: A

82. The banker’s gain on a sum due 3 years hence at 12% per annum is Rs.270. The banker’s discount is:

(A) Rs. 960

(B) Rs. 840

(C) Rs. 1020

(D) Rs. 760

Answer: C

83. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a certain point is 300. If the observer moves 20 m towards the tower, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower increases by 150. The height of the tower is:

(A) 17.3 m

(B) 21.9 m

(C) 27.3 m

(D) 30 m

Answer: C

84. A dairyman pays Rs. 6.40 per litre of milk. He adds water and sells the mixture at Rs. 8 per litre, thereby making 37.5% profit. The proportion of water to milk received by the customers is :

(A) 1:10

(B) 1:12

(C) 1:15

(D) 1: 20

Answer: A

85. The least number of complete years in which a sum of money put out at 20% compound interest will be more than doubled is:

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 6

Answer: B

86. If log x 4=0.4, then the value of x is :

(A) 1

(B) 4

(C) 16

(D) 32

Answer: D

87. The cost of carpeting a room 18 m long with a carpet 75 cm wide at Rs. 4.50 per metre is Rs.810. The breadth of the room is:

(A) 7m

(B) 7.5m

(C) 8m

(D) 8.5m

Answer: B

88. If 35% of a number is 12 less than 50% of that number, then the number is:

(A) 40

(B) 50

(C) 60

(D) 80

Answer: D

89. 5 men and 2 boys working together can do four times as much work as a main and a boy. Working capacities of a woman and a boy are in the ratio:

(A) 1:2

(B) 2:1

(C) 1:3

(D) 3:1

Answer: B

90. In an examination, 34% of the students failed in Mathematics and 42% failed in English. If 20% of the students failed in both the subjects, then the percentage of students who passed in both the subjects was:

(A) 44

(B) 50

(C) 54

(D) 56

Answer: A



Directions(Questions 91 to 95): Study the following table and answer the following questions


EXPENDITURES OF A COMPANY (IN LAKH RUPEES)

PER ANNUM OVER THE GIVEN YEARS


Item of Expenditure
\

Year
SalaryFuel and TransportBonusInterest on LoansTaxes
1998288983.0023.483
19993421122.5232.5108
20003241013.8441.674
20013361333.6836.488
20024201423.9649.498

91. The ratio between the total expenditure on Taxes for all the years and the total expenditure on Fuel and Transport for all the years respectively is approximately:

(A) 4:7

(B) 10:13

(C) 15:18

(D) 5:8

Answer: B



92. The total expenditure of the Company over these items during the year 2000 in Rs. is :

(A) 32.43 lakhs

(B) 33.72 lakhs

(C) 34.18 lakhs

(D) 35.69 lakhs

Answer: A

93. What is the average amount of interest per year which the company had to pay in Rs. during this period?

(A) 32.43 lakhs

(B) 33.72 lakhs

(C) 34.18 lakhs

(D) 36.66 lakhs

Answer: D

94. Total expenditure on all these items in 1998 was approximately what percent of the total expenditure in 2002?

(A) 62%

(B) 66%

(C) 69%

(D) 71%

Answer: C

95. The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period is approximately what percent of the total amount of salary paid during this period?

(A) 0.1%

(B) 0.5%

(C) 1%

(D) 1.25%

Answer: C

96. Two cones have their heights in the ratio of 1:3 and radii 3:1. The ratio of their volumes is:

(A) 1:1

(B) 1:3

(C) 3:1

(D) 2:3

Answer: C

97. 36 men can complete a piece of work in 18 days, In how many days will 27 men complete the same work?

(A) 12

(B) 18

(C) 22

(D) 24

Answer: D

98. p is six times as large as q. The percent that q is less than p, is:

(A) 16

(B) 60

(C) 83

(D) 90

Answer: C

99. The greatest number which can divide 1356,1868 and 2764 leaving the same remainder 12 in each case is:

(A) 64

(B) 124

(C) 156

(D) 260

Answer: A

100. How many pieces of 85 cm length can be cut from a rod 42.5 metres long?

(A) 30

(B) 40

(C) 60

(D) None of these

Answer: D


PART C


Directions: For question Nos 101 to 105, choose the correct alternative from the given options

101. 28,33,31,36,?,39

(A) 32

(B) 34

(C) 38

(D) 40

Answer: B



102. 2,2,5,13,28,?

(A) 49

(B) 50

(C) 51

(D) 52

Answer: D



103. DHL, PTX, BFJ, ?

(A) CGK

(B) KOS

(C) NRV

(D) RVZ

Answer: C



104. Z,X,S,I,R,R,?,?

(A) G,I

(B) J,I

(C) J,K

(D) K,M

Answer: A



105. 2,9,28,?,126,217,344

(A) 50

(B) 65

(C) 70

(D) 82

Answer: B

Directions: For Question Nos. 106 to 110, select the related numbers/words/groups to complete the anology

106. Googly : Cricket :: Deuce : ?

(A) Polo

(B) Tennis

(C) Football

(D) Rugby

Answer: B



107. 25 : 37 :: 49 : ?

(A) 41

(B) 56

(C) 60

(D) 65

Answer: D

108. GHF : CDB :: EFD : ?

(A) ABJ

(B) CBD

(C) IJH

(D) AJB

Answer: A

109. Knoll : Hill :: Eclogue : ?

(A) Poem

(B) Music

(C) Drama

(D) Ballad

Answer: A

110. 48 : 122 :: 168 : ?

(A) 215                                    (B) 225                                    (C) 290                                    (D) 292

Answer: C

Directions:  In each of the following questions, a word is represented  by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in the two given matrices. The columns and rows of matrix I can be numbered from 0 to 4 and those of matrix II from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and then column number. Identify the correct set for the word given in each questions from 111 to 115.



01234
0FANOI
1IOFAN
2ANOIF
3OFINA
4NIAFO


56789
5SEHBT
6HSETB
7BTSEH
8EHTBS
9TSEHB



111. NEST

(A) 02,56,55,59

(B) 14,67,66,67

(C)  21,76,77,76

(D) 33,85,88,86

Answer: A



112. FAITH

(A) 43, 42, 41,78, 89

(B) 31,34,23,76,79

(C) 24.31,10,59,57

(D) 12,20,40,68,65

Answer: B

113. FINE

(A) 31,32,33,82

(B) 24,19,21,78

(C) 12,10,13,67

(D) 00,04,02,56

Answer: D

114. HEAT

(A) 79,53,20,87

(B) 65,56,13,57

(C) 57,56,01,59

(D) 29,85, 34, 93

Answer: C

115. BOTH

(A) 88, 30,85,86

(B)75,22,76,79

(C) 69,67,68,59

(D) 58,02,68,65

Answer: B



Directions (Questions 116 to 120): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.

(i) P,Q,R,S,T and U are six members in a family in which there are two married couples.

(ii) T, a teacher, is married to the doctor who is the mother of R and U.

(iii) Q, the lawyer, is married to P.

(iv) P has one son and one grandson.

(v) Of the two married ladies one is a houswife.

(vi) There is also one student and one male engineer in the family.

Directions (Questions 116 to 120): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.

(i) P,Q,R,S,T and U are six members in a family in which there are two married couples.

(ii) T, a teacher, is married to the doctor who is the mother of R and U.

(iii) Q, the lawyer, is married to P.

(iv) P has one son and one grandson.

(v) Of the two married ladies one is a houswife.

(vi) There is also one student and one male engineer in the family.



116. How is P related to R?

(A) Grandfather

(B) Mother

(C) Grandmother

(D) Aunt

Answer: C

117. Who among the following is the housewife?

(A) P

(B) Q

(C) S

(D) T

Answer: A

118. How is R related to U?

(A) Brother

(B) Sister

(C) A or B

(D) data inadequate

Answer: C

119. Which of the following represents the group of females in the family?

(A) PSR

(B) PSU

(C) QTR

(D) data inadequate

Answer: D

120. Which of the following is true about the granddaughter in the family?

(A) she is a lawyer

(B) she is a student

(C) she is an engineer

(D) data ineadequate

Answer: B

121. If 'train; is called 'bus', 'bus' is called 'tractor', 'tractor' is called 'car', 'car' is called scooter', 'scooter' is called 'bicycle', 'bicycle' is called moped, which is used to plough a field?

(A) Train

(B) Bus

(C) Car

(D) Tractor

Answer: C



Directions (Questions 122 to 126): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.

(i) Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to P,Q,R,S,T and U

(ii) Q gets North facing flat and is not next to S.

(iii) S and U get diagonally opposite flats.

(iv) R, next to U, gets a south facing flat and T gets a north facing  flat.



122. Which of the following combinations get south facing flats?

(A) QTS

(B) UPT

(C) URP

(D) none of these

Answer: D

123. Whose flat is between Q and S?

(A) T

(B) U

(C) R

(D) P

Answer: A

124. If the flats T and P are interchanged, whose flat will be next to that of U?

(A) P

(B) Q

(C) R

(D) T

Answer: C

125. The flats of which of the other pairs than SU, are diagonally opposite to each other?

(A) QP

(B) QR

(C) PT

(D) TS

Answer: A

126. To arrive at the answers to the above questions, which of the following statements can be dispensed with?

(A) none

(B) i only

(C) ii only

(D) iii only

Answer: A



Directions (Questions 127 to 131): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.

In a family, there are six members A,B,C,D,E and F. A and B are married couple, A being the male member. D is the only son of C, who is the brother of A. E is the sister of D. B is the daughter in law of F, whose husband has died.

127. How is F related to A?

(A) Mother

(B) Sister in law

(C) Sister

(D) Mother in law

Answer: A

128. How is E related to C?

(A) Sister

(B) Daughter

(C) Cousin

(D) Aunt

Answer: B

129. Who is C to B?

(A) Brother

(B) Brother in law

(C) Nephew

(D) Son in law

Answer: B

130. How many male members are there in the family?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

Answer: C

131. How is F related to C?

(A) Mother in law

(B) Sister in law

(C) Mother

(D) Aunt

Answer: C

Directions (Questions 132 to 135): in these questions, a set of figures carrying certain numbers/alphabets is given. Assuming that the numbers in each set follow a similar pattern find the missing term

132.

14?
425
223
4964169





(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 6

Answer: C

133.

HKQ
CGO
EJ?



(A) T

(B) P

(C) N

(D) L

Answer: A

134.

bis mechanical previous year question papers 2014-examshouters dot in 134

(A) 11

(B) 12

(C) 22

(D) 33

Answer: C



135.

bis mechanical previous year question papers 2014-examshouters dot in

(A) 45

(B) 50

(C) 60

(D) 63

Answer: D

Directions (Questions 136 to 140): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions

Anitha, Mahima, Rajan, Latha and Deepthi are five cousins. Anitha is twice as old as Mahima. Rajan is half the age of Mahima. Anitha is half the age of Deepthi and Rajan is twice the age of Latha.

136. Who is the youngest?

(A) Deepthi

(B) Rajan

(C) Latha

(D) Anitha

Answer: C

137. Who is the eldest?

(A) Deepthi

(B) Latha

(C) Anitha

(D) None of these

Answer: A

138. Which of the following pairs of prsons are of the same age?

(A) Mahima and Latha

(C) Anitha and Mahima

(C) Mahima and Rajan

(D) None of these

Answer:D

139. Anitha is younger than ?

(A) Rajan

(B) Mahima

(C) Deepthi

(D) None of these

Answer: C

140. If Mahima is 16 years old, then what is the age of Latha?

(A) 4 years

(B) 5 years

(C) 7 years

(D) 14 years

Answer: A



Directions (Questions 141 to 145): Choose the odd man out

141. (A) Baboon

(B) Gibbon

(C) Gorilla

(D) Jaguar

Answer: D

142. (A) Rabbit

(B) Rat

(C) Mangoose

(D) Cat

Answer: D

143. (A) Grass

(B) Fern

(C) Moss

(D) Algae

Answer: A

144. 196, 169, 144, 121,101

(A)  101

(B) 121

(C) 169

(D) 196

Answer: A

145. 1,3,12,25,48

(A) 3

(B) 12

(C) 25

(D) 48

Answer: C

Directions(Questions 146-148): In a certain code, 'it be pee' means 'roses are blue', 'sik hee' means 'red flowers' and 'pee mit hee' means 'flowers are vegetables'.

146. How is 'red' written in that code?

(A) hee

(B) sik

(C) be

(D) none of these

Answer: B

147. How is 'roses' written in that code?

(A) il

(B) pee

(C) be

(D) cannot be determined

Answer: D

148. How is 'vegetables are red flowers' written in this code?

(A) pee sik mit hee

(B) sik pee hee be

(C) il sik mit hee

(D) None of these

Answer: A

149. Pointing towards a person in the photograph, Anjali said, "He is the only son of the father of my sister's brother." How is that person related to Anjali?

(A) Mother

(B) Father

(C) Maternal uncle

(D) None of these

Answer: D

150. In a row of boys, A is fifteenth from the left and B is fourth from the right. There are three boys between A and B. C is just left of A. What is C's position from the right?

(A) 9

(B) 10

(C) 12

(D) 13

Answer: A


PART D




151. The maximum number of faces in a precision polygons can be

(A) 72

(B) 28

(C) 12

(D) 20

Answer: A

152. Shaft revolving in a bearing is the following type of pair

(A) higher pair

(B) lower pair

(C) spherical pair

(D) cylindrical pair

Answer: B

153. A cantilever beam is deflected by d due to load P. if beam width is doubled, then the deflection compared to earlier case will be changed by a factor of

(A) 2

(B) 1/2

(C) 1/8

(D) 8

Answer: C

154. Which of the following is not a vector quantity

(A) accelaration

(B) pressure

(C) moment

(D) force

Answer: B

155. The maximum combustion pressure in gas turbine as compared to I.C. engine is

(A) more

(B) less

(C) same

(D) unpredictable

Answer: B

156. Cetane number of petrol is around

(A) 10

(B)15-20

(C)20-25

(D) 30-35

Answer: A

157. Expansion in a nozzle is a

(A) isothermal process

(B) isochoric process

(C) adiabatic process

(D)isobaric process

Answer: C

158. Maximum cutting angles are used for machining

(A) mild steel

(B) cast iron

(C) nickel alloy

(D) aluminium alloy

Answer: D

159. Following type of cam is used for high speed engines

(A) involute

(B) cycloidal

(C) flat

(D) harmonic

Answer: B

160. Applications in which stresses are encountered in one direction only uses following types of threads

(A) BSW

(B) buttress

(C) ACME

(D)square

Answer: B

161. The crystal structure of brass is

(A) F.C.C

(B) B.C.C

(C) H.C.P

(D) none of above

Answer: A

162. Froude number is the ratio of inertial force to

(A) gravitational force

(B) elasticity

(C) viscous force

(D) surface tension

Answer: A

163. For pumping viscous oil, which pump will be used

(A) centrifugal pump

(B) axial pump

(C) reciprocating pump

(D) Screw pump

Answer: D

164. On psychrometric chart, dry bulb temparature lines are

(A) horizontal

(B) vertical

(C) straight line sloping downward to the right

(D) curved

Answer: B

165. Which of the following is expected to have highest thermal conductivity?

(A) steam

(B) solid ice

(C) melting ice

(D) water

Answer: B

166. If rain is falling in the opposite direction of the movement of a pedestrian, he has to hold his umbrella

(A) more inclined when moving

(B) less inclined when moving

(C) more inclined when standing

(D) less inclined when standing

Answer: D

167. A hollow shaft of same cross-section area as solid shaft transmits

(A) same torque

(B) less torque

(C) more torque

(D) none of the above

Answer: C

168. Maximum percentage of carbon in austenite is

(A) 0.26%

(B) 0.8%

(C) 1.25%

(D) 1.7%

Answer: D

169. Thermit welding is a form of

(A) resistance welding

(B) gas welding

(C) fusion welding

(D) forge welding

Answer: C

170. Gears are best mass produced by

(A) milling

(B) hobbing

(C) shaping

(D) casting

Answer: B

171. When a gas flows through a very long pipe of uniform cross section, the flow is approximately

(A) isentropic

(B) isobaric

(C) isothermal

(D) adiabatic

Answer: C

172. The cam shaft of a four stroke I.C. engine running at 1500 rpm will run at

(A) 1500 rpm

(B) 750 rpm

(C) 3000 rpm

(D) 4500rpm

Answer: B

173. Regenerator in gas turbine results in

(A) improved thermal efficiency

(B) lower work ratio

(C) higher work ratio

(D) lower thermal efficiency

Answer: A

174. Thermal conductivity of air with rise in temperature

(A) increases

(B) decreases

(C) remains constant

(D) unpredictable

Answer: A

175. Highest efficiency is obtained with following channel section

(A) circular

(B) triangular

(C) rectangular

(D) trapezoidal

Answer: D

176. Maximum efficiency of transmission of power through pipe is

(A) 25%

(B) 33.3%

(C) 50%

(D) 66.6%

Answer: D

177. An elevator weighing 1000 kg attains an upward velocity of 4m/s in two seconds with uniform acceleration. The tension in the supporting cables will be

(A) 1000 kg

(B) 500 kg

(C) 1200 kg

(D) 2000 kg

Answer: D

178. Resilience of a material is considered when it is subjected to

(A) heat treatment

(B) fatigue

(C) shock loading

(D) creep

Answer: C

179. A three rotor system has following number of natural frequencies

(A) one

(B) two

(C) three

(D)four

Answer: B

180. Which of the following errors are regularly repetitive in nature?

(A) systematic errors

(B) random errors

(C) calibration errors

(D) controllable errors

Answer: A

181. Critical path moves along the activities having total float of

(A) positive value

(B) negative value

(C) zero value

(D) same value

Answer: C

182. For a floating body to be in stable equilibrium the meta-centre should be

(A) below the centre of gravity

(B) below the centre of buoyancy

(C) above the centre of buoyancy

(D) above the centre of gravity

Answer: D

183. Triple point  of a pure substance on p-V diagram is represented by

(A) point

(B) line

(C) curve

(D) triangle

Answer: B

184. Cochran boiler is a

(A) horizontal fire tube boiler

(B) stationary water tube boiler

(C) vertical fire tube boiler

(D) vertical fire tube boiler

Answer: D

185. One ton refrigeration is equal to

(A) 210 kJ/min

(B) 21 kJ/min

(C) 21 kJ/min

(D) 210 J/min

Answer: A

186. The type of motion when the acceleration is proportional to displacement is called

(A) translation

(B) rotational

(C) SHM

(D) gyroscopic

Answer: C

187. In the design of pulley, key and shaft

(A) all three are designed for same strength

(B) key is made weaker

(C) pulley is made weaker

(D) shaft is made weaker

Answer: B

188. The gear box in automobiles is placed between

(A) the clutch and differntial

(B) the steering and engine

(C) the engine and clutch

(D) the differential and hook's joint

Answer: C

189. Shear stress theory is applicable for

(A) ductile material

(B) brittle material

(C) elastic material

(D) all of the above

Answer: A

190. For steel castings , the following type of sand is better

(A) fine-grain

(B) coarse-grain

(C) medium-grain

(D) all of the above

Answer: B

191. Nominal diameter of a bolt is

(A) larger than the actual diameter

(B) smaller than the actual diameter

(C) same as the actual diameter

(D) none of the above

Answer: A

192. For ship vessel industry the following layout is best suited

(A) process layout

(B) product layout

(C) fixed position layout

(D) plant layout

Answer: C

193. The probability distribution of project completion in PERT follows following distribution

(A) normal

(B) Gaussian

(C) beta

(D) exponential

Answer: B

194. According to kinetic theory of gases, the absolute zero temperature is attained when

(A) volume of gas is zero

(B) pressure of gas is zero

(C) kinetic energy of the molecules is zero

(D) specific heat of gas is zero

Answer: C

195. Air cycle efficiency for a petrol engine having compression ratio of 5:1 will be

(A) 80%

(B) 60%

(C) 47.5%

(D) 42.5%

Answer: C

196. In laminar flow through a round tube, the discharge varies

(A) linearly as the viscosity

(B) inversly as the pressure drop

(C) as the cube of the diameter

(D) inversely as the viscosity

Answer: D

197. For a machine to be self locking, its efficiency should be

(A) 100%

(B) less than 67%

(C) less than 50%

(D) more than 50%

Answer: C

198. A cam with a roller follower would constitute following  type of pair

(A) lower pair

(B) higher pair

(C) open pair

(D) close pair

Answer: B

199. Emissivity of a white polished body in comparison to a black body is

(A) higher

(B) lower

(C) same

(D) depends upon the shape of body

Answer: B

200. Annealing is done by cooling in

(A) air

(B) furnace

(C) water

(D) brine

Answer: A
Feel free to ask any doubts in this question papers and share your honest opinions about this blog. Thank you
Share:

24 Sept 2015

GRSE Assistant Manager Previous Year Electrical Question Papers 2014

grse electrical manager question papers 2014 free download

Garden shipbuilders and engineers ltd (GRSE) is one of the mini ratana company in India, who mainly contributes to defense area by building warships. GRSE have a wonderful engineering section and have wide opportunities mainly for be or b tech graduates of Mechanical, Mechanical & Industrial engineering, Mechanical & Production engineering, Electrical, Electrical & Electronics, Electrical & instrumentation, Navel architecture, Ocean engineering & Navel architecture, navel architecture & shipbuilding, Navel architecture & marine engineering and Navel architecture & ocean engineering.

GRSE Question Papers Electrical 2014


This post contains GRSE question papers 2014 competitive examination in the electrical engineering stream. This question papers contains electrical engineering questions, quantitative aptitude, English and reasoning type questions. It contains total 85 multiple choice questions; 50 from basic electrical engineering and 35 from general aptitude. GRSE follows the same examination pattern for the all engineering recruitment examinations. The below provides some of the important electrical subjects syllabus; you should learn before writing the grse assistant manager electrical online examination. You can also download GRSE Electrical Previous Year Question Papers completely free of cost and link provided below the post.

GRSE Electrical Syllabus

  • Electrical Machines

  • Power Electronics

  • Electrical circuits

  • Signals and Systems

  • Analog and Digital Measurements

  • Control systems

  • Power Systems

  • Electrical and Electronics Measurements etc
GRSE Examination Tip:- You should have an basic knowledge about your core engineering subjects, workout more numerical ability, reasoning, data analysis and English language questions.

GRSE Electrical Sample Questions


PART- A

1. Synonym of APATHETIC
(A) Caring

(B) Concerned

(C) Refusing

(D) Emotionless

Answer: D

2. An unexpected piece of good fortune

(A) windfall

(B) philanthrophy

(C) benevolence

(D) turnstile

Answer: A

3. Find the correctly spelt word.

(A) parapharnelia

(B) parsimonious

(C) peccadillo

(D) peadiatrics

Answer: B

4. Choose the correct alternative to the bold part of the sentence given below.

“ A callous system generates nothing but a mica mope”

(A) develops

(B) induces

(C) produces

(D) No improvement

Answer: C

.........................

PART B

36. Installation of high voltage bus-bar in a substation requires

A) Disc insulator

B) Shackle insulator

C) Post insulator

D) Pin insulator



37. Stranded conductors are preferred to solid over head conductors as

A) They are more flexible

B) They may be wound over a drum for easy transportation

C) May be designed to have larger effective cross section

D) All of these



38 . Resistance units in valve type lighting arrestor is made from

A) Nicrome wire

B) Parallel connection of carbon resistor

C) Parallel connection of metal film resistor

D) Silicon carbide

......

.....

85. Two thyristor of same rating and same specifications will have

A) Equal turn on and turn off periods

B) Equal turn on but unequal turn off periods

C) Equal or unequal turn on and turn off periods

D) Unequal turn on and turn off periods



To see more questions and download GRSE question papers mechanical 2014 examinations, click link below.

GRSE Assistant Manager Electrical Question Papers 2014 Free Download


If you experience any trouble in downloading the grse question papers, read how to download question papers from ExamShouters.in
Share:

18 Sept 2015

Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) | Exam Shouters.IN

Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) is one of the toughest competitive examination in India; mainly conducted for selecting young, brilliant and bright engineering graduates for higher studies in  IIT's (Indian institute of technology) , NIIT's other institutes in India. GATE is conducted jointly by IISc and IIT's on behalf of ministry of human resources development, govt of India. The main eligibility criteria of GATE exam is B.E/B.Tech in engineering graduate / final year student/ or having equivalent degree in engineering disciplines.

Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE)


Most of the public sector units (PSU) India also consider this competitive exam as a screen level test for engineering jobs. It is computer based test (online test) contains 23 question papers prepared jointly by IISc and IIT institutions. This post contains the gate examination pattern, eligibility criteria, gate previous year question papers with answer keys, gate exam syllabus of various disciplines and list of PSU companies select graduates through gate 2016.

Gate 2016 Important Details

Application FeesRs. 1500/- Male and General candidates; Rs. 750/- for female and SC/ST/PWD categories
Payment ModeOnline and e-challan available
Application Starting Date01/09/2015
Application Closing Date01/10/2015
Examination Date30/01/2016 to 7/02/2016
Validity of Gate Score :3 Years (from the date of announcement of results)

Currently, GATE 2016 notifications are online for apply eligible candidates. Click here to see latest gate 2016 notifications and online application

Gate 2016 Exam Pattern

Gate exam contains total 65 questions, carry 100 marks and 3 hours time to complete it. The 15% of total marks is from engineering mathematics, 15% of total marks from general aptitude section and 70% of total marks from the subject of your paper. According to new exam pattern, gate includes some numerical answer entering via virtual pad questions and all others are multiple choice questions of different levels.


 Exam PatternTotal = 100 Marks
Subject/Discipline Questions70%
Engineering Mathematics15%
General aptitude15%

Gate Eligibility Criteria

Candidate are eligible to apply gate 2016 having:-
4 year Bachelor of engineering (B.E)/ bachelor of technology (B.Tech) degree completed or final year student or equivalent degree in various engineering disciplines.

or

B.Arch (bachelor degree of architecture), 5 years/B.Sc (bachelor degree in science, 4 years)/M.Sc/M.A/MCA etc.

To know more click here.

Gate Exam Syllabus

(update soon)

Gate Previous Year Question Papers with Answer Keys

(Update soon)

PSU Engineering Jobs Recruitment through GATE 2016 Company Lists

PSU NameDisciplinesNotifications
Bharat Broadband Network Limited (BBNL)Computers Science/Electronics & Communication/Electrical engineeringUpdate soon
Bank Note Paper Mill India Pvt. Ltd (BNPM)Mechanical/Chemical/ Electronics & Communication/Electrical EngineeringUpdate soon
Bharat Petroleum Corporation Ltd (BPCL)Mechanical/Chemical/Civil/ Instrumentation/Electrical EngineeringSee BPCL notifications
Central Electronics Limited (CEL)Electronics & Communication/Electrical engineering/Engineering SciencesUpdate soon
Coal India Limited (CIL)Electrical/Mechanical/Geology and Geophysics/Mining EngineeringUpdate soon
GAIL LimitedChemical/Electrical/Instrumentation/mechanical EngineeringSee GAIL Notifications
Gujarat State Electricity Corporation Limited (GSECL)Electrical/Mechanical/Instrumentation/Metallurgical engineeringUpdate soon
Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd (HPCL)Civil/ Electronics & Communication/Electrical/Instrumentation/MechanicalSee HPCL Notifications
Indian Oil Corporation Ltd (IOCL)Civil/Chemical/Computer science/ Electronics & Communication/Electrical/Instrumentation/Mechanical/Metallurgical/Mining engineeringVisit here
IRCON International Ltd (IRCON)Civil / Electronics & Communication/Electrical/Mechanical engineeringUpdate soon
Mazagon Dock Ship builders Ltd (MDL)Electrical/Mechanical EngineeringSee MDL Notifications
Mineral Exploration Corporation Ltd (MECL)Chemical/Computer science/Geology and Geophysics/Mechanical engineeringUpdate soon
National Aluminum Company Limited (NALCO)Civil/Chemical/Computer science/Electronics & communication/ Electrical/ Instrumentation/Mechanical/Mining/metallurgical engineeringUpdate soon
National Building Construction Corporation Ltd (NBCC)Civil engineering update soon
National Fertilizers Ltd (NFL)Chemical/Electrical/Instrumentation/Mechanical engineeringUpdate soon
National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)Civil engineeringUpdate soon
National Hydroelectric Power Corporation Ltd (NHPC)Electrical engineeringUpdate soon
Neyveli Lignite Corporation Ltd (NLC)Civil/ Computer science/Electrical/Instrumentation/Mechanical/Mining EngineeringSee NLC Notifications
National Projects Construction Corporation Ltd (NPCCL)Civil engineeringUpdate soon
National Thermal Power Corporation Ltd (NTPC)Electronics & communication/Electrical/Instrumentation/Mechanical engineeringUpdate soon
Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Ltd (ONGC)Civil/ Chemical/Computer science/Chemistry/Electronics & Communication/Electrical/Geology and Geophysics/Instrumentation/Mechanical/Mathematics/Physics/Engineering SciencesUpdate soon
Odisha Power Generation Corporation Ltd (OPGC)Civil/Electrical/Instrumentation/MechanicalUpdate soon
Power Grid Corporation of India Ltd (PGCIL)Civil/Computer science/Electrical engineeringUpdate soon
Punjab State Power Corporation Ltd (PSPCL)Civil/Computer science/Electrical/Electronics & Communication/Instrumentation/Mechanical engineeringUpdate soon
Rail India Technical and Economic Service (RITES)Civil/Mechanical EngineeringUpdate soon
Rail Vikas Nigam Ltd (RVNL)Civil/Electronics & communication/Electrical engineeringUpdate soon
Tehri Hydro Development Company(THDC)Civil/Electrical/ Mechanical engineeringUpdate soon

Share: